Abstract/Modern Algebra - Relatively Prime

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the concept of relatively prime integers in the context of abstract algebra. The original poster presents a problem involving integers \(a\), \(b\), and \(c\) where it is given that \(gcd(a,b) = 1\) and \(gcd(a,c) = 1\). The question posed is whether \(gcd(bc,a) = 1\) is true, and seeks to explore potential proofs or methods to establish this claim.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss various approaches to proving the statement, including using the corollary of linear combinations of gcd and unique prime factorization. Some express uncertainty about the applicability of certain methods based on their current curriculum.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active with multiple participants offering different perspectives on how to approach the proof. Some guidance has been provided regarding the use of linear combinations and the implications of unique prime factorization, although there is no consensus on a single method due to curriculum constraints.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that certain methods, such as unique prime factorization, have not yet been covered in their coursework, leading to hesitance in applying these ideas. There is also mention of the potential limitations imposed by the homework guidelines regarding the use of material not yet discussed in class.

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Homework Statement


Note: gcd(a,b) = the greatest common divisor of integers a and b (not both 0)

suppose that (a,b)=1 and (a,c)=1
that is, a and b are relatively prime, and a and c are relatively prime

Is the following statement true? if so prove it

(bc,a)=1

I computed a few examples, and i claim that it is true

Homework Equations



theorem: linear combination of gcd

if d = gcd(a,b)

then there exists integers u and v such that

d = au + bv

corollary:

(a,b)=1 if and only if 1 = au +bv

The Attempt at a Solution


From the corollary stated above, i claimed that we must show that

1 = (bc)u + (a)v

thus we must find integers u and v that satisfy the statement above

since (a,b) = 1 and (a,c) = 1, I used that corollary again,

1 = ax + by and 1 = af + cg
for some integers x,y,f, and g

and i am stuck at this point. I have no idea what i can do with these statements

I'm not sure if my approach is correct. But in the textbook, and in my class notes there are no examples showing how we can prove two integers are relatively prime. So i assumed this is how we approach the problem

the only other thing we have learned so far, is the divisibility algorithm, and division

any hints, guidance, would be appreciated. thanks

edit: possible solution

i see, that's the final step missing

i said since
(a,b) = 1 --> 1 = ax + by
(a,c) = 1 --> 1 = af + cg
By Theorem, x,y,f, and g exist

1 = 1.1 = (ax+by)(af+cg) = a^2xf + axcg + aabyf + bycg
= a(axf + xcg + byf) + bc(yg)
therefore let

u = axf + xcg + byf
and
v = yg

and since, all the "letters" used exist and are integers, they satisfy the domain, and the proposition

is that correct? even though "u" is messy, it doesn't matter right? because those integers exist (by theorem)
 
Last edited:
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The easiest way to prove it is to use unique prime factorization. If gcd(a,b)=1 then a and b have no common prime factors. Ditto for a and c. The set of prime factors of bc is the union of the set of prime factors of b and c. If a has none in common with b and none in common with c, doesn't that prove it has none in common with bc?
 
Last edited:
i see what you're saying and it makes sense

but we have not gone over that topic in class, and that was not introduced in any of the proofs in the book

even though that is the easiest way, is there another method to do so?

actually i skimmed through the book, and i see it's in the upcoming section

i doubt that my professor would allow me to use an idea from a chapter we will be discussing later
 
Last edited:
what about this other approach: using the definition of GCD

d=gcd(a,b) if d satisfies the 2 following conditions

1) d|a and d|b
2) IF c|a and c|b --> c less than equal to d

1) is clearly true, since 1 divides any integer
2) i guess the hard part is to show that c is less than or equal to 1Or I believe this is the correct approach

d = gcd(a,b) iff and only if d satisfies

1) d|a and d|b
2) if c|a and c|b --> c|d

nevermind, this last approach doesn't work, because by hypothesis, c neither divides a nor b
 
Last edited:
Ok, gcd(a,b)=1 means that there are k1 and k2 such that k1*a+k2*b=1. gcd(a,c)=1 means there are l1 and l2 such that l1*a+l2*c=1. Multiply the two together and find m1 and m2 such that m1*a+m2*b*c=1.
 
Last edited:
i see, that's the final step missing

i said since
(a,b) = 1 --> 1 = ax + by
(a,c) = 1 --> 1 = af + cg
By Theorem, x,y,f, and g exist

1 = 1.1 = (ax+by)(af+cg) = a^2xf + axcg + aabyf + bycg
= a(axf + xcg + byf) + bc(yg)
therefore let

u = axf + xcg + byf
and
v = yg

and since, all the "letters" used exist and are integers, they satisfy the domain, and the proposition

is that correct? even though "u" is messy, it doesn't matter right? because those integers exist (by theorem)
 
Last edited:
That's correct. axf+xcg+byf is just as much of an integer as x is. It doesn't matter that it's "messy".
 

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