Applying L'Hopital's Theorem to Limits of Indeterminate Forms

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves evaluating the limit of a function in the form of f(x)/g(x), specifically [x^2 - pi^2/4]/tan^2(x) as x approaches pi/2. The discussion centers around the applicability of L'Hopital's theorem and the nature of the limit as it approaches an indeterminate form.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss whether the limit can be evaluated using L'Hopital's theorem, with some asserting that the form 0/infinity is not indeterminate and thus does not require the theorem. Others suggest using substitution instead.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with various participants providing insights on the nature of the limit and the methods to evaluate it. Some express confusion about the use of substitution and the implications of the limit's form.

Contextual Notes

There is mention of homework constraints that require the use of L'Hopital's theorem, which some participants question in light of the limit's form. The original poster also expresses uncertainty about the appropriate approach to take.

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Homework Statement



The problem is:
A function in the form of f(x)/g(x) is given: [x^2 - pi^2/4 ]/tan^2(x) as x \rightarrow pi/2.


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



Surely I can't solve this question using L'hopital's theorem since it's applicable to indeterminate in the form of 0/0, infinity/infinity, 0 (+- infinity),etc. The above function gives 0/infinity... or am I missing something.. Could I perhaps use trig identity for the denominator ?


Another problem: Also would differentiating x^{1/x}/x-1 as x -> 1 give me an answer of e^1 only ?

Here's how I attempted to solve this problem:
I made y = x^1/x which gave me lny = lnx/x ( which's 0/1) that eventually gives me lny = 1 ? :s
 
Last edited:
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You are missing that \frac{0}{\infty} is not a form of indetermination:
\frac{0}{\infty}=0
 
0/∞ shouldn't pose a problem.

DiracR beat me !
 
DiracRules said:
You are missing that \frac{0}{\infty} is not a form of indetermination:
\frac{0}{\infty}=0

SammyS said:
0/∞ shouldn't pose a problem.

DiracR beat me !
So I can't solve this problem using the aforementioned theorem ?
 
There is no reason to evaluate this limit using a theorem. You can solve it by "substitution", and the form you get is not indeterminate.
 
DiracRules said:
There is no reason to evaluate this limit using a theorem. You can solve it by "substitution", and the form you get is not indeterminate.

Thanks for being patient with me but when you say 'substitution' are you referring to trig. identity = sec^2(x) =1+ tan^2 (x) ?
I was handed over this question sheet, where we have to basically evaluate functions using 'hopitals theorem.
 
no, with substitution I mean simply to put the value x=pi/2 in the limits.

\lim_{x\rightarrow\frac{\pi}{2}}\frac{x^2-\frac{\pi^2}{4}}{\tan(x)^2}=\frac{x^2-\frac{\pi^2}{4}}{\tan(x)^2}|_{x=\frac{\pi}{2}}=\frac{0^{\pm}}{+\infty}=0^{\pm}

This is the way to solve this limit...
 
Last edited:
DiracRules said:
no, with substitution I mean simply to put the value x=pi/2 in the limits.

\lim_{x\rightarrow\frac{\pi}{2}}\frac{x^2-\frac{\pi^2}{4}}{\tan(x)^2}=\frac{x^2-\frac{\pi^2}{4}}{\tan(x)^2}|_{x=\frac{\pi}{2}}=\frac{0^{\pm}}{+\infty}=0^{\pm}

This is the way to solve this limit...

Sorry but I am further confused. :(
 
I edited my previous post, get a glance at it.

The thing is, you don't need any theorem.

The way to solve this limit is the first thing you should have studied, that is: trying substituting the value and see what happens.
 
  • #10
DiracRules said:
I edited my previous post, get a glance at it.

The thing is, you don't need any theorem.

The way to solve this limit is the first thing you should have studied, that is: trying substituting the value and see what happens.

Yes, when I sub. in the values I get the following fraction : 0/infinity..
I know if it had been 0/0 or infinity/ infinity.. then I could have used l'hospital's theorem

EDIT: I suppose that's the answer since it's not in the form of 0/0 or infinity/ infinity.

Thanks for your help DiracRules! btw. dirac indeed does ;)
 
Last edited:

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