Approximating the Circumference of an Ellipse with Parametric Equations

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around approximating the circumference of an ellipse defined by parametric equations. The original poster presents an integral expression for the circumference and seeks assistance in simplifying it under specific conditions related to the parameters of the ellipse.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the use of Taylor series to approximate the square root in the integral. Some suggest neglecting higher-order terms, while others discuss the implications of using a power series expansion.

Discussion Status

There is ongoing exploration of different methods to approach the integral, with some participants providing insights into Taylor series and power series expansions. While some results have been shared, there is no explicit consensus on the best approach yet.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the integral does not have a straightforward expression in terms of elementary functions, which influences the discussion on approximation methods. The original poster expresses uncertainty about their knowledge of Taylor series, indicating a potential barrier to progress.

Libertine
Messages
16
Reaction score
0
An ellipse has an equation which can be written parametrically as:
x = a cos(t)
y = b sin(t)

It can be proved that the circumference of this ellipse is given by the integral:
[tex]\int^{2\pi}_0 \sqrt{a^2 \sin^2 t + b^2 \cos^2 t} \ \ dt[/tex]

Prove that, if [tex]a=r(1+c)[/tex] and [tex]b=r(1-c)[/tex], where c is a positive number small enough for powers higher than [tex]c^2[/tex] to be neglected, then this circumference is approximately:
[tex]2 \pi r (1+\frac{1}{4}c^2)[/tex]

So I substituted in the expressions for a and b:
[tex]$ \int^{2\pi}_0 \sqrt{a^2 \sin^2 t + b^2 \cos^2 t} \ \ dt \\<br /> =\int^{2\pi}_0 \sqrt{(r(1+c))^2 \sin^2 t + (r(1-c))^2 \cos^2 t} \ \ dt \\<br /> =r \int^{2\pi}_0 \sqrt{\sin^2 t + 2c \sin^2 t + c^2 \sin^2 t + \cos^2 t - 2c \cos^2 t + c^2 \cos^2 t} \ \ dt \\<br /> =r \int^{2\pi}_0 \sqrt{(\sin^2 t + \cos^2 t)+ c^2( \sin^2 t + \cos^2 t) + 2c(\sin^2 t - \cos^2 t)} \ \ dt \\<br /> =r \int^{2\pi}_0 \sqrt{1 + c^2 + 2c(\sin^2 t - \cos^2 t)} \ \ dt \\ $[/tex]
After this point, I seem to hit a brick wall and can't simplify it any further or factorise to get rid of that annoying square root. Any help appreciated.

(I'm assuming the tex won't come out all right first time, so I'll be trying to correct it for a little while)
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
Although I can't explicitly tell you how to help, perhaps approximating the square root function in the integral will get you somewhere. I see one or two term Taylor expansions justify equations in classes all the time as "approximations" :) ( http://mathworld.wolfram.com/SquareRoot.html )

Edit: It was worth a shot. Came out to 2*pi*r(1+0.5*c^2) by my calculations.

Edit 2: Whoops I said Newton's Method instead of Taylor series.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
where c is a positive number small enough for powers higher than [itex]c^2[/itex] to be neglected,
That sounds like a command to use Taylor series, and neglect all the terms with powers higher than .



You won't be able to compute this integral directly -- it doesn't have an expression in terms of "elementary" functions.
 
Considering the first 3 terms in the power series expansion of

[tex](1 + x)^{\frac{1}{2}},[/tex]

where

[tex]x = c^2 + 2c \left( \sin^2 t - \cos^2 t \right) = c^2 - 2c \cos 2t[/tex]

is small, seems to give the right answer.

Edit: I got the same result as vsage when I considered the first 2 terms of the power series expansion, but this does not include all terms of order c^2.

Regards,
George
 
Last edited:
Ok, thanks guys. I'll have a go doing that (although my Taylor Series expansion knowledge is sketchy at best).
 
[tex](1 + x)^{\frac{1}{2}}= 1 + \frac{1}{2} x - \frac{1}{8}x^2 + \frac{1}{16} z^3+\cdots , |x|<1[/tex]
 
You don't actually have to know the Taylor expansion: you only need a couple terms, so it's easy enough to compute. You simply need to differentiate with respect to c twice to get all the terms up to order c^2.
 
Just for the curious: I did managed to get the answer in the end - it was necessary to use the third term of the expansion. Thanks.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 16 ·
Replies
16
Views
2K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
1K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K