Are Newtonian physics universal?

AI Thread Summary
The discussion explores the distinction between objectivity and universality in the context of Newtonian physics. It questions whether specific objects, like a coffee mug, can be considered objective but not universal. Newtonian physics is acknowledged to be effective within certain limits, particularly in everyday scenarios. However, it fails to accurately describe phenomena involving objects moving close to the speed of light. Additionally, relativity effects can influence Newtonian interactions at lower velocities, though these effects are often negligible.
Hunter1234
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I am wondering if things can be objective but not universal.
 
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What do you mean by "things"?
Is a coffee mug objective? How about universal?
 
As far as we know and can tell (through astrophysics) Newtonian physics work well enough within certain bounds. We know Newtonian physics doesn't work well at all for objects traveling close to the speed of light. We know also that even at reduced velocities there are relativity effects on "Newtonian" interactions, they are just too small in magnitude to make a practical difference.
 
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Some physics textbook writer told me that Newton's first law applies only on bodies that feel no interactions at all. He said that if a body is on rest or moves in constant velocity, there is no external force acting on it. But I have heard another form of the law that says the net force acting on a body must be zero. This means there is interactions involved after all. So which one is correct?
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