Are the Equations for Normal Force on an Inclined Plane the Same?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the normal force acting on an object on an inclined plane, specifically examining the equations used to calculate this force. The original poster is exploring the relationship between two different equations derived for the normal force and questioning their equivalence.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to derive the normal force using both the y-component of the gravitational force and the components of the normal force. They express confusion about how the two resulting equations for the normal force can be reconciled.

Discussion Status

Some participants provide insights regarding the acceleration of the object on the incline, suggesting that the validity of one of the equations may depend on the object's motion. There is an acknowledgment of different scenarios, such as the case of a car on a banked road, which prompts further exploration of the conditions under which the equations apply.

Contextual Notes

The discussion includes considerations of the object's acceleration along the incline and the implications for the normal force equations. There is a focus on the assumptions made regarding acceleration in different directions.

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Homework Statement


I was doing a problem with normal force on an inclined plane and found the normal force by finding the y-component of the gravity vector. Then I also found that if I find the components of the normal force, I can also get another answer.
-How are the 2 different equations available for the normal force the same


Homework Equations


Fg = mg
Fgy = -mgcos(theta)

Fny = Fncos(theta)


The Attempt at a Solution


Fgy = -mgcos(theta)
Fn - mgcos(theta) = 0 'movement along plane; not vertically
Fn = mgcos(theta)

Fny = Fncos(theta)
Fncos(theta) - mg = 0 'movement along plane; not vertically
Fn = mg/cos(theta)

I got 2 equations for Fn; Fn = mgcos(theta), Fn = mg/cos(theta)...I'm not understanding how the 2 are the same; can anyone help
 
Last edited:
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The object is accelerating, [tex]a[/tex], along the direction of the incline.

This means that in a direction perpendicular to the incline it is not accelerating as you correctly assumed in the derivation of your first formula.

One can decompose the acceleration along the incline into x- and y- components though. This means that in the x and y direction one cannot assume that the acceleration of the object is zero. So your second formula is invalid.
 
I see; thanks. But, in that case, the second equation would work if let's say the object was moving perpendicular to the plane (such as a car on a banked road), right?
 
Yes, because the resultant acceleration is horizontal and there is then no vertical accelleration component.
 
Alright; thanks
 

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