Yes. Consider \sup_X\sup_Y P(x,y). By definition we have \sup_X\sup_Y P(x,y)\geq P(x',y') for all x'\in X,y'\in Y, so \sup_X\sup_Y P(x,y)\geq \sup_{X\times Y} P(x,y) by definition of \sup. Conversely, if \sup_X\sup_Y P(x,y)\not\leq \sup_{X\times Y} P(x,y) then there is x'\in X with \sup_Y P(x',y)\not\leq \sup_{X\times Y} P(x,y), and thus there is y'\in Y with \sup_Y P(x',y')\not\leq \sup_{X\times Y} P(x,y), which would be a contradiction. So \sup_X\sup_Y P(x,y)= \sup_{X\times Y} P(x,y) and a symmetry argument gives \sup_X\sup_Y P(x,y)= \sup_{X\times Y} P(x,y)=\sup_Y\sup_X P(x,y).
Edit: We require that the suprema and infima are defined, I forgot to mention that in my original response.