jsc01
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Hello all, this is my first post so I hope the question I have is interesting, at least to a few, and that I can learn something from the discussion.
I had problem for a class not long ago in which I had to prove that:
[tex]\vec{E} \cdot \vec{B}[/tex] and [tex]E^2 - c^2B^2[/tex] were Lorentz invariant. I was able to show this without too much problem.
I was later told that these are the only bilinear combination of [tex]\vec{E}[/tex] and [tex]\vec{B}[/tex] that is Lorentz invariant. Is this true? What exactly does this mean?
JSC
I had problem for a class not long ago in which I had to prove that:
[tex]\vec{E} \cdot \vec{B}[/tex] and [tex]E^2 - c^2B^2[/tex] were Lorentz invariant. I was able to show this without too much problem.
I was later told that these are the only bilinear combination of [tex]\vec{E}[/tex] and [tex]\vec{B}[/tex] that is Lorentz invariant. Is this true? What exactly does this mean?
JSC