Are these proofs correct(bounded and finite variation).

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Azael
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First of all if you read this and the latex is all messed upp I am probably working on getting it right so please be patient till I get it right. No need to post a comment that it doesn't work. Thanks :wink:

I haven't taken a pure maths class in over 2,5 years so I can hardly remember how to write proofs

Problem 1.

Let [tex]C \in \mathbb{R}[/tex] be a arbitrary number. Show that the function
[tex]f:[a,b]\rightarrow \mathbb{R}[/tex]

given by [tex]f(t)=cos(ct)[/tex]

is of bounded variation. i.e it satisifies the condition

[tex]Sup V_f (t) < \infty[/tex]

Proof.

[tex]V_f (t) = \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} Sup_{ t_k^n,t_{k-1}^n \in \pi_n } <br /> \sum_{k=1}^n |{(f(t_k^n)-f(t_{k-1}^n)}|[/tex]

with [tex]\pi_n : t_0^n < ... < t_n^n[/tex]

Since [tex]Cos(ct)[/tex]

is differentiable we can rewrite [tex]V_f (t)[/tex] with the mean value theorem

[tex]V_f (t) = \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} Sup_{ t_k^n,t_{k-1}^n \in \pi_n } <br /> \sum_{k=1}^n \|{(f(t_k^n)-f(t_{k-1}^n)}| = \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} Sup_{ t_k^n,t_{k-1}^n \in \pi_n } \sum_{k=1}^n |f^{'} (G)| (t_k^n - t_{k-1}^n)[/tex]

which is equal to(according to the definition of the riemann integral)

[tex]\int_{a}^{b} |f^{'} (x)| dx[/tex]

with [tex]f(x)=f(t)=cos(ct)[/tex] we get

[tex]\int_{a}^{b} |-csin(ct)| dx \leq \int_{a}^{b} |c| dx = |c|(b-a)[/tex]

So

[tex]Sup V_f (t) = Sup |c|(b-a) <\infty[/tex]
 
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problem 2
show that the function [tex]g:[0,\infty) \rightarrow \mathbb{R}[/tex]
given by [tex]g(t)=sin(ct)[/tex] is of finite variation.

In the same manner as in problem one we get

[tex]V_f ((0,t)) = \int_{0}^{t} |f'(t)|dt = \int_{0}^{t} |ccos(ct)|dt \leq \int_{0}^{t} |c|dt=|c|t<\infty[/tex] for all t equal to or larger than zero. (how do I get the equal to or larger than symbol in latex? and the "for all" symbol?)

which shows that the function is of finite variation
 
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problem 3
If the functions [tex]f,g:[0,\infty) \rightarrow \mathbb{R}[/tex] are of finite variation, show that any linear combination of them,
[tex]\alpha f + \beta g:[0,\infty) \rightarrow \mathbb{R}[/tex] [tex]\alpha,\beta \in \mathbb{R}[/tex] are of finite variation.

[tex]V_{f,g} ((0,t))=\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} \Sup_{ t_k^n,t_{k-1}^n \in \pi_n }\sum_{k=1}^n |{\alpha f(t_k^n)+\beta g(t_k^n)-\alpha f(t_{k-1}^n)-\beta g(t_{k-1}^n)|=[/tex]
[tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}Sup_{ t_k^n,t_{k-1}^n \in \pi_n }\sum_{k=1}^n| \alpha (f(t_k^n)-f(t_{k-1})+\beta (g(t_k^n)-g(t_{k-1})| \leq[/tex]

(using triangle inequality)

[tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}Sup_{ t_k^n,t_{k-1}^n \in \pi_n }\sum_{k=1}^n |\alpha (f(t_k^n)-f(t_{k-1})|+|\beta (g(t_k^n)-g(t_{k-1})| =[/tex]
(can I just move the alpha and beta outside of the lim,sup and sum like this?)
[tex]|\alpha| \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}Sup_{ t_k^n,t_{k-1}^n \in \pi_n }\sum_{k=1}^n |(f(t_k^n)-f(t_{k-1})|+ |\beta|\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}Sup_{ t_k^n,t_{k-1}^n \in \pi_n }\sum_{k=1}^n |(g(t_k^n)-g(t_{k-1})| =[/tex]

[tex]|\alpha| V_f((0,t))+|\beta| V_f((0,t)) <\infty[/tex] for all t equal to or larger than zero since [tex]V_f((0,t))<\infty[/tex] and [tex]V_g((0,t)) <\infty[/tex] for all t equal to or larger than zero.
 
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I hope I haven't made any error that makes the whole thing incomprehensible :(
 
For the first question, the basic idea of the proof seems correct, although I'm not sure how Vf is a function of t, it seems more a function from intervals into the real numbers. And I'm not sure what you're taking the sup of when you write sup Vf(t) or sup |c|(b-a). Besides these details it looks correct. For the second, do they mean "of bounded variation on the set [0,t], for all t in R"? If so, this is just a special case of the last problem. The third proof seems correct as well.
 
yes you are quite correct I just made some errors :)

Thanks a lot for checking, appreciate it.