Autocorrelation and Spectral Density

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For a constant power signal x(t) = c, the auto-correlation function is calculated as R_x(τ) = c², indicating that the signal has constant power over time. The spectral density function is derived using the Wiener-Khintchine relation, leading to S_x(ω) = 2πc²δ(ω), which reflects the frequency characteristics of the constant signal. The discussion highlights confusion regarding the constants and the Dirac delta function's role in the spectral density, with participants clarifying that S should be expressed in terms of δ(ω) rather than δ(t). The conversation also touches on different conventions in Fourier transforms, affecting how constants are applied in calculations. Understanding these relationships is crucial for correctly interpreting the spectral density of constant power signals.
CivilSigma
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Homework Statement



For a constant power signal x(t) = c, determine the auto correlation function and the spectral density function.

Homework Equations


The auto correlation function is:

$$R_x (\tau) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} E(x(t) \cdot x(t+\tau)) d\tau$$

To my understanding, here to find the expected value of the signal we must also multiply the function x(t)x(t+tau) by the probability function which is taken to be 1/period. Then, we change the integral limits to one period and get:

$$R_x (\tau) = \int_{-T/2}^{T/2} E(x(t) \cdot x(t+\tau)) \cdot \frac{1}{T} d\tau$$

Is my understanding of the auto-correlational function correct?

For the spectral density function :

$$S_x (\omega) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} R_x(\tau) \cdot e^{-i\omega \tau} \cdot \frac{1}{2\pi}d\tau$$

Here, we don't change the integral limits and consider all the possible values of tau.

The Attempt at a Solution


The auto-correlation is:

$$R_x (\tau) = \int_{-T/2}^{T/2} E(x(t) \cdot x(t+\tau)) \cdot \frac{1}{T} d\tau$$
$$R_x(\tau) = \int_{-T/2}^{T/2} c^2 \cdot \frac{1}{T} d\tau$$
$$R_x(\tau)=c^2$$

The spectral density is then:
$$S_x (\omega) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} R_x(\tau) \cdot e^{-i\omega \tau} \cdot \frac{1}{2\pi}d\tau$$
$$S_x (\omega) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} c^2 \cdot e^{-i\omega \tau} \cdot \frac{1}{2\pi}d\tau$$
$$S_x (\omega) = \frac{-c^2}{2\pi \cdot i \omega} \times (e^{-i \omega \tau})|_{-\infty}^{\infty}$$

$$S_x (\omega) = \frac{-c^2}{2\pi \cdot i \omega} \times (0 - \infty)=?$$

However, my lecture notes suggest that the answer is :
$$S_x(\omega) = c^2 \cdot \delta(t)$$How did they get to here? How is the Dirac function obtained from evaluating the integral? Moreover, what happened to the other constants such as 2pi, i and omega from my original solution? If someone can shed some light on this mystery I would really appreciate it.
 
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## \delta(x)=\frac{1}{2 \pi} \int\limits_{-\infty}^{+\infty} e^{i kx} dk ##. This is a very well-known result. At the moment, I don't have a proof on my fingertips, but this is a very well-known result.
 
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Charles Link said:
## \delta(x)=\frac{1}{2 \pi} \int\limits_{-\infty}^{+\infty} e^{i kx} dk ##. This is a very well-known result. At the moment, I don't have a proof on my fingertips, but this is a very well-known result.

I found it on WikiPedia https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dirac_delta_function but with no derivation. I had originally read the Wiki, but I guess I did not read it well the first time.
 
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I noticed that in the definition, the exponential is positive. However, in my problem the exponential is negative.

Can I then say that:

Dirac (-x) is the solution to my original problem?

But really, the negative is not necessary because the function is defined at x=0 and will approach infinity.

So, Dirac (-x) = Dirac (x) ?
 
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CivilSigma said:

Homework Statement



For a constant power signal x(t) = c, determine the auto correlation function and the spectral density function.

Homework Equations

Something funny here.
R has the dimensions of c2
So S has the dimensions of c2T
But the dimension of δ(t) is T-1.
 
First off, the answer for S is not as stated by the author. It should probably have read S = c2δ(ω). But that's still not exactly what I got.

You can derive this by using the fact (Wiener-Khintchine relation) that S is the Fourier integral of R, which you have already attempted.

The Fourier transform of c2 would be 2πc2δ(ω). So that's not the same as the answer either.
 
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@rude man Thanks for pointing that out, that it should be ## \delta(\omega) ## rather than ## \delta(t) ##. I looked at it very quickly.
 
Charles Link said:
@rude man Thanks for pointing that out, that it should be ## \delta(\omega) ## rather than ## \delta(t) ##. I looked at it very quickly.
OK but I still didn't get their answer. Did you try it? BTW if anyone asked me to derive the Fourier transform of e-jω0(t-τ) I would just tell them what it is & they can convince themselves that the inverse transform of that is indeed e-jω0(t-τ)! :smile:
 
rude man said:
OK but I still didn't get their answer. Did you try it? BTW if anyone asked me to derive the Fourier transform of e-jω0(t-τ) I would just tell them what it is & they can convince themselves that the inverse transform of that is indeed e-jω0(t-τ)! :smile:
There are different conventions used in Fourier transforms for when the ## \frac{1}{2 \pi} ## is inserted. I normally insert this factor when doing the inverse transform, but here they inserted it when doing the primary transform. Some authors choose to make this symmetric and use ## \frac{1}{\sqrt{2 \pi}} ## in both cases.
 

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