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Average of function

  1. Feb 1, 2008 #1

    Is it correct to say that average of ln(x) can be approximated by ln(average of x) where x is composed of mean and deviational parts?

    Thanks for your help!
  2. jcsd
  3. Feb 1, 2008 #2


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    In general, no. That's because [itex]\log\left(\sum_i x_i\right)\ne\sum_i\log\left(x_i\right).[/itex]
    Last edited: Feb 1, 2008
  4. Feb 1, 2008 #3
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