- #1

- 11

- 0

Hey,

In doing calculations on superconductors, I often hear that people say "averaging over the random potential of impurities make the theory translationally invariant both in time and space".

I do not exactly understand it? Could you please explain it through a simple example or by citing a readable reference?

Thanks a lot!

In doing calculations on superconductors, I often hear that people say "averaging over the random potential of impurities make the theory translationally invariant both in time and space".

I do not exactly understand it? Could you please explain it through a simple example or by citing a readable reference?

Thanks a lot!

Last edited: