B-field question Lorentz's force

  • Thread starter Thread starter flyingpig
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    B-field Force
Join the discussion
Ask a follow-up here, or get your own question answered by working scientists, mathematicians and engineers — people, not an autocomplete.
Real named experts · corrections over time · the nuance an AI answer skips
34 replies · 4K views
flyingpig
Messages
2,574
Reaction score
1

Homework Statement



http://img834.imageshack.us/img834/5598/46421047.th.png

Uploaded with ImageShack.us

The Attempt at a Solution



I think this problem is deeper than it looks. Here is my FBD

http://img291.imageshack.us/img291/69/31024385.th.png

Uploaded with ImageShack.us

So I am assuming at it actually "stops" and "drops" when the magnetic force is exactly 180 degrees with Fg and then it falls under constant velocity?

In other words

[tex]qv_{0}B = mg[/tex]

[tex]v_0 = \frac{mg}{qB}[/tex]

Then

[tex]y(t) = \frac{mgt}{qB} + y(0)[/tex]

Now my problem is, what is y(0)?
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Physics news on Phys.org
I suspect you are to ignore gravity. At any rate the effect of gravity will be minuscule compared to the Lorentz force.

The electron will undergo uniform circular motion once it enters the region with the B field. It's path will be a semi-circle, after which it exits the field.

What is the direction of the Lorentz force on the electron?
 
It's always inwards, if there is no gravity then won't it go into a circle forever?
 
The velocity is the left, but the force is up
 
I'll give it another shot

[tex]\frac{mv^2}{r} = qvB[/tex]

[tex]v = \frac{rqB}{m}[/tex]

[tex]\bar{v}t = \Delta x[/tex]

[tex]\frac{rqBt}{m} = \pi r[/tex]

[tex]t = \frac{\pi m}{qB}[/tex]
 
Sigh...I am alone again.
 
What exactly do you mean by displaced by 4cm? Isn't it going in an arc?
 
flyingpig said:
The velocity is the left, but the force is up
[tex]\vec{v}[/tex] is to the right, so [tex]-e\vec{v}[/tex] is to the left, so, yes, the force is upward, on the page, initially, where q = -e.
flyingpig said:
I'll give it another shot

[tex]\frac{mv^2}{r} = qvB[/tex]

[tex]v = \frac{rqB}{m}[/tex]

[tex]\bar{v}t = \Delta x[/tex]

[tex]\frac{rqBt}{m} = \pi r[/tex]

[tex]t = \frac{\pi m}{qB}[/tex]
The radius is given in the statement of the problem -- although not directly. So, you should be able to find the velocity, and thus the Kinetic Energy.
flyingpig said:
What exactly do you mean by displaced by 4cm? Isn't it going in an arc?
After the electron leaves the region with the B-field, it again travels in a straight line. This line is 4 cm from the electron's initial line of flight.
 
Is my answer wrong then...? For time
 
Sammy, I am still confused about the KE part, is it asking when it comes out? Or the change in KE during the whole process? If it is the whole trip, how do I find the tangential force?
 
Lorentz Force is perpendicular to the direction of motion (cross product) at all times. Therefore, the Lorentz Force does NO work on the electron, so KE is constant.

Io find KE, you need to find v. What is r for the circular portion of the motion?
 
I feel like you are trying to lead me to saying it is 2cm...but it isn't. When I mean tangential force, I don't mean the centripetal force I mean the one that's parallel to the tangential velocity
 
No the Lorentz Force = centripetal force, which not the force I am talking about.

How do I find the force that is parallel to the tangential velocity si what I am asking.
 
How do I find the work done = KE then?

[tex]ma_t \cdot \pi r = \Delta KE[/tex]
 
Then how can I find the change KE when it is 0? I don't understand
 
It's meant to just be the KE I think - there's no change in KE
There's only centripetal force in this problem - the "tangential force" you're talking about doesn't exist =\
 
I don't understand how the 2cm can help me get to the answer. If the change in KE is 0 then

[tex]\frac{1}{2}mv_{0}^2 = \frac{1}{2}mv^2[/tex]
 
flyingpig said:
I'll give it another shot

[tex]\frac{mv^2}{r} = qvB[/tex]

[tex]v = \frac{rqB}{m}[/tex]

[tex]\bar{v}t = \Delta x[/tex]

[tex]\frac{rqBt}{m} = \pi r[/tex]

[tex]t = \frac{\pi m}{qB}[/tex]

flyingpig said:
I don't understand how the 2cm can help me get to the answer. If the change in KE is 0 then

[tex]\frac{1}{2}mv_{0}^2 = \frac{1}{2}mv^2[/tex]

One of the equations in post #6 will give you the speed.

You know r, q, B, & m. Find v.
 
I was about to say that 2.00cm / t = v...

[tex]F = qvB = m\frac{v^2}{r}[/tex]

[tex]qB = m\frac{v}{r}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{qBr}{m} = v[/tex]
 
[tex]KE = \frac{1}{2}(qBr)^2[/tex]

Now the question is, is r the ARCLENGTH or radius. How did you know it was radius Sammy?
 
flyingpig said:
[tex]KE = \frac{1}{2}(qBr)^2[/tex]
You're missing an m.
Now the question is, is r the ARCLENGTH or radius. How did you know it was radius Sammy?
The equation: [tex]F = qvB = m\frac{v^2}{r}[/tex] tells us that the Lorentz force is providing the centripetal force. Since m is mass & v is the speed, r must be the radius of the resulting semi-circle.

Before you ask me, I'm asking you:
flyingpig, why is it a semi-circle rather than a full circle?​
 
SammyS said:
You're missing an m.

The equation: [tex]F = qvB = m\frac{v^2}{r}[/tex] tells us that the Lorentz force is providing the centripetal force. Since m is mass & v is the speed, r must be the radius of the resulting semi-circle.

Before you ask me, I'm asking you:
flyingpig, why is it a semi-circle rather than a full circle?​


Because there is no B-field on the left hand side...it says on the picture