How Do Bar Magnets Create Zero Magnetic Field at Point P?

[motleycat]

1. The magnetic field at point P due to a magnetic source S1 is represented by ==>. Can a bar magnet S2 be brought close to P so that the total magnetic field at P due to S1 and S2 is zero? Explain your answer.2. None3. Yes, this is possible if both fields at point P have the same magnitude but a different direction. When two bar magnets are held vis-à-vis to each other (one’s north pole facing the other’s south pole) repulsion occurs between them. In the exact centre between those two poles of the two bar magnets a singular point exists where the magnetic field force equals 0.
Am I on the right track?

 

[Dr. Courtney]

Probably. But this assumes that the second source is sufficiently strong to cancel out the first one with a field equal in magnitude and opposite in direction.

 

[motleycat]

Probably. But this assumes that the second source is sufficiently strong to cancel out the first one with a field equal in magnitude and opposite in direction.

The second source is just another bar magnet, why would they differ?

 

[Dr. Courtney]

The second source is just another bar magnet, why would they differ?

Think like a scientist. If the statement of the question does not say they are identical, then why assume that they are?

 

[motleycat]

Think like a scientist. If the statement of the question does not say they are identical, then why assume that they are?

I have just changed my answer. Does it look better now?

Thank you for your help!