AxiomOfChoice
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Suppose I know that x\in A \Leftrightarrow f(x)\in A. Can someone explain why I know, on the strength of this, that f(A) \subseteq A and f^{-1}(A) \subseteq A?
Landau said:You might want to explain what f and A are. What are domain and codomain of f? A is subset of...?
Landau said:I didn't mean for you to explain the specific problem you're working on (Fatou, Julia sets, rational functions, etc.), but the general A and f.
A general function f still has a domain and a codomain. For expressions like f(A)\subseteq A to make sense, A still has to be a subset of the domain of f, and furthermore A has to be a subset of the codomain of f. That's all information you didn't provide; so: what is f and what is A?
Landau said:For a function f:A\to A, the statements f(A)\subseteq A and f^{-1}(A)\subseteq A are trivial:
* f(A) is just the image of f, and by definition the image of f is a subset of the codomain.
* f^-1(A) is by definition a subset of the domain (it consists of elements x in A such that...)
But you were talking about Fatou and Julia sets, which are subsets of domain and codomain.
So, let B\subseteq A.
Recall that f(B):=\{f(x)\ |\ x\in B\}. Therefore, the statement f(B)\subseteq B means that f(x)\in B for all x\in B. Hence, the statement f(B)\subseteq B is equivalent to x\in B\Rightarrow f(x)\in B.
Recall that f^{-1}(B):=\{x\in A\ |\ f(x)\in B\}. Therefore, the statement f^{-1}(B)\subseteq B means that x\in B for all f(x)\in B. Hence, the statement f^{-1}(B)\subseteq B is equivalent to f(x)\in B\Rightarrow x\in B.
Together: (f(B)\subseteq B AND f^{-1}(B)\subseteq B) is equivalent to (x\in B\Rightarrow f(x)\in B AND f(x)\in B\Rightarrow x\in B), and the last is equivalent to x\in B\Leftrightarrow f(x)\in B.
You're welcome!AxiomOfChoice said:Wow. That was very helpful. Thanks a lot.
Too bad, this is not true. A very simple counter-example:Here's another question, and I think if I'm right here, I can leave this behind: Does F \subseteq (f(F^c))^c imply F \subseteq f(F)?
Landau said:Too bad, this is not true. A very simple counter-example:
Take A={1,2,3}, define f:A->A by f(1)=f(2)=2 and f(3)=3. For the subset F={1,2} we now have the following:
f(F)={2}
f(F^c)^c=A\{f(3}={1,2,3}\{3}={1,2}.
Hence F\subseteq f(F^c)^c ({1,2} is contained in {1,2}), but F\subseteq f(F) does NOT hold ({1,2} is NOT contained in {2}).
No, then it's true. Proof:AxiomOfChoice said:But what if we assume f is onto? Do we still have the same problem?