(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); Bell's Theorem and "Counterfactual Definiteness"

Bell's Theorem and Aspect's experiments pretty much show that quantum theory is nonlocal--the violation of Bell's inequalities show that somehow the wavefunction is acting on the entangled particles faster than c.

However, I've heard that Bell's inequalities violateeitherlocality or "counterfactual definiteness."

Now I'm very confused about what that means. Is that complete garbage or is there some possibility that quantum theory is local and we just need to abandon "counterfactual definiteness" instead? I thought quantum theory was already counterfactually non-definite, being as though you can't simultaneously measure complementary properties (like position and momentum) due to the Heisenburg uncertainty principle.

What does "counterfactual definiteness" mean in that context?

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# Bell's Theorem and Counterfactual Definiteness

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**