Suppose we want to estimate a binomial proportion, p. We take a sample of size n and count X successes.
Consider a Bernoulli random variable, Y that is 1 with probability p and 0 otherwise. Show that the mean and variance of Y are p and p(1-p), respectively.
The Attempt at a Solution
Not too sure what to do here. I know that the mean is calculated by [tex]\Sigma[/tex]xf(x) and variance is E(X-mean)2