amcavoy
- 663
- 0
I was just looking at the definitions of these words, and it reminded me of some things from linear algebra. I was just wondering: Is a bijection the same as an isomorphism?
Icebreaker said:A mapping f:A->B is injective if it's one-to-one. But elements of B may be unmapped. f is surjective if every element of B is mapped from some a in A by f(a). f is bijective if it's surjective and injective simultaneously.
It's not an isomorphism because an isomorphism is a function between two rings that preserves the binary operations of those rings, on top of which the function is bijective.
matt grime said:You're not too far off, tokomak; strictly speaking an *invertible* homomorphism is an isomorphism, but if it helps you can use the bijective idea instead as it will suffice for most things you'll meet in undergraduate mathematics.
Hurkyl said:Don't forget the bijective homomorphisms whose inverses aren't homomorphisms!
No, but there are invertible homomorphisms which are not bijective.
Yes! In some cases, the inverse is automatically a homomorphism, but not in all. For example, consider the identity map \bar{\mathbb{R}} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} where I am using \bar{\mathbb{R}} to denote the discrete topology. This is clearly an invertible map, but it is not a homeomorphism. (Which is what we call isomorphisms when doing topology)Well, for a mapping to be an isomorphism, is it required that it's inverse be a homomorphism?
Hurkyl said:Don't forget the bijective homomorphisms whose inverses aren't homomorphisms!