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Can someone explain why the probability of the inclination angle of a binary system being less than i_0 is 1-cos(i_0)
i.e. why the fractional distribution of binary stars is df = sini * di, where i is the inclination angle?
Where does the sin i come from? Why is not not uniformly distributed across angles?
Thanks.
i.e. why the fractional distribution of binary stars is df = sini * di, where i is the inclination angle?
Where does the sin i come from? Why is not not uniformly distributed across angles?
Thanks.