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greswd

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This is a repeat of this thread https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/biot-savart-version-of-maxwell-faraday-equation.855423/

That thread was dominated by one verbose poster. I am repeating this thread so as to hear the opinions of others.Ampere's Law can be derived from the Biot-Savart Law.

Faraday's Law is similar to Ampere's Law.

Is there a "Biot-Savart equivalent" of Faraday's Law?

I imagine it might look something like this: (not taking into account Coulomb's Law)

[tex]\frac{d\vec{E}}{dV}=\frac{-\left(\frac{∂\vec{B}}{∂t}\right)×\vec{1_r}}{4\pi r^2}[/tex]

That thread was dominated by one verbose poster. I am repeating this thread so as to hear the opinions of others.Ampere's Law can be derived from the Biot-Savart Law.

Faraday's Law is similar to Ampere's Law.

Is there a "Biot-Savart equivalent" of Faraday's Law?

I imagine it might look something like this: (not taking into account Coulomb's Law)

[tex]\frac{d\vec{E}}{dV}=\frac{-\left(\frac{∂\vec{B}}{∂t}\right)×\vec{1_r}}{4\pi r^2}[/tex]

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