Hi,(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

I'm stuck on "the summit of statistical mechanics" (as Feynman calls it): the definition of the Boltzmann Factor.

The probability of measuring the system with energy E is P(E) = 1/Z * e^-E/kT.

I've taken courses in QM and can't understand why P(E) does not depend on the ket of the system |psi>.

From QM, I want to write down P(Ei) = <psi|Ei><Ei|psi>. So why doesn't 1/Z * e^-E/kT depend on |psi>? Is it a hidden assumption about the nature of the system that all |psi> in the Hilbert Space have P(Ei) equal?

Thanks in advance,

Andrew

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

Dismiss Notice

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Boltzmann Factor in QM Language

Loading...

Similar Threads for Boltzmann Factor Language | Date |
---|---|

A Collision integral approximation in boltzmann equation | Dec 11, 2017 |

I Boltzmann with degenerate levels | Feb 1, 2017 |

I Boltzmann bosons factor two | Jan 30, 2017 |

I Boltzmann brains and other low probability events | Jan 2, 2017 |

I Stationary states -- Boltzmann distribution | Oct 13, 2016 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**