In derivation of the box-muller transform, the joint distribution p(x,y) = e^(-r^2/2)/(2*pi) is interpreted as the product of a uniform distribution 1/(2*pi) and an exponential distribution e^(-x/2), but isn't an exponential distribution defined as k*e^(-k*x)? What happened to the coefficient?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

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# Box-Muller transform

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