Brachistochrone problem with friction

In summary, the conversation was about the brachistochrone problem with frictions and a demonstration found on the web. The person asked for help understanding the steps between equations (29) and (30) and (30) and (32), (33). Another person explained that to go from (29) to (30), one needs to integrate and to convince themselves that (30) is the result of integrating (29). The original person thanked the other for their help. Another person later joined the conversation, asking for help with steps (28) to (29) and how it relates to the Euler Lagrange equation.
  • #1
janonus
3
0
Hey,
I am doing some research on the brachistochrone problem WITH frictions. I found the following demonstration on the web.
The beginning is ok. But I can't understand how the managed to pass between (29) and (30) and between (30) and ((32), (33)).

If someone could help me, it would be very nice !
thanks :)

The link to the article : http://mathworld.wolfram.com/BrachistochroneProblem.html
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #2
To go from 29 to 30, it is pretty clear that they have integrated one time. Eq(29) is second order while eq(30) is first order. What you need to do is convince yourself that 30 is indeed the result of integrating 29.
 
  • Like
Likes janonus
  • #3
Yeah, I got it !
Tanks for your help Dr.D ! :smile:
 
  • #4
Hi, not sure if it is ok to revive an old question, I am also having trouble following some of the steps in this demonstration, in particular steps (28) to (29). I know what the Euler Lagrange equation is, but applying it to the integrand in (28) does not appear to simplify to (29). Would anyone be able to help me with this?
 
Back
Top