Calculating f(x) at x=0.01 using Transcedental Equation Cos(x)-e^(-x^2/2)

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around calculating the value of the function f(x) = Cos(x) - e^(-x^2/2) at x = 0.01. Participants are exploring the implications of higher derivatives and series expansions in the context of transcendental equations.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss linearizing the function at x = 0 and the implications of higher derivatives being zero. There are attempts to simplify the function by considering only certain terms in the series expansions of cosine and the exponential function. Questions arise regarding the cancellation of terms at x = 0 and the need to go beyond the second derivative.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with some participants suggesting the use of Maclaurin series to explore further terms. There is acknowledgment of the complexity of the function and the need for careful consideration of the series expansions. Guidance has been offered regarding the exploration of additional terms in the series.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the second derivative of the function is zero when considering both terms, which raises questions about the behavior of the function near x = 0. There is an emphasis on the transcendental nature of the equation and the potential need for alternative approaches.

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f(x)=Cos(x)-e^(-x^2/2)
Value of f(x) at x=0.01

I tried linearising at x=0 but higher derivatives are zero at x=0 .Please help me proceed
 
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mite said:
f(x)=Cos(x)-e^(-x^2/2)
Value of f(x) at x=0.01

I tried linearising at x=0 but higher derivatives are zero at x=0 .Please help me proceed

Lets for the moment forget the exponential term.

f'(x) = -sin(x)
f''(x) = -cos(x)
f'''(x) = sin(x)
f''''(x) = cos(x) and so on

f'(0) = 0 but f''(0) = -1 so you're argument doesn't stand.

As for e^(x^2/2) we get

g'(x) = x * e^(x^2/2)
g''(x) = e^(x^2/2) + x^2 * e^(x^2/2)
g'''(x) = x * e^(x^2/2) + 2x * e^(x^2/2) + x^3 * e(x^2/2)

Not of all of these terms will be zero.
 
It is e^(-(x^2)/2) .when both are considered second derivative is zero
 
mite said:
It is e^(-(x^2)/2) .when both are considered second derivative is zero

Use a few more terms in the Maclaurin series
 
i tried doing that one time when there is a sine function other terms have x terms so at x=0 it is zero another time when there is cos function there is one term such as exp(-(x^2/2)) which cancels it so at x=0 it is zero
 
Yes, up to second derivative the difference is 0. So go past the second derivative.

cos(x)= 1- \frac{x^2}{2!}+ \frac{x^4}{4!}- \frac{x^6}{6!}+ \cdot\cdot\cdot
= 1- \frac{x^2}{2}+ \frac{x^4}{24}- \frac{x^6}{720}+ \cdot\cdot\cdot

e^{-x^2/2}= 1- \frac{x^2}{2}+ \frac{x^4}{(4)(2!)}- \frac{x^6}{(8)(6!)}+ \cdot\cdot\cdot
= 1- \frac{x^2}{2}+ \frac{x^4}{8}- \frac{x^6}{5760}

Subtract to get
-\frac{x^4}{12}+ \frac{7x^6}{5760}+ \cdot\cdot\cdot
 
Yes I got it thank you
 
Might be worth noting that the second term is basically an error function, might not but it does tell you that this is transcendental and needs either a trick, or a series that only converges at infinity. Of course you already knew that but...

Might help in future. To solve by some sort of inspection by realising that this essentially is another function you can take the series from and use after the -?
 
Last edited:

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