Calculating Probability of Exactly One Faulty Product in 5 Days

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around calculating the probability of exactly one faulty product over a five-day period, based on a provided probability table for daily faulty products. The subject area involves probability theory and binomial distributions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore how to extend the probability of one faulty product from one day to five days, questioning whether to multiply probabilities or apply a different method. There is discussion about the implications of the binomial distribution in this context.

Discussion Status

The conversation has progressed with participants providing insights and corrections regarding the application of probability rules. One participant indicates they have found a solution, despite a scheduling conflict with their coursework.

Contextual Notes

There is mention of a scheduling conflict at the university that affects the coverage of relevant topics, which may impact the understanding of the problem. The assignment deadline is approaching, adding urgency to the discussion.

Xenix
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I am given this probability table:

x 0 1 2 3 4
P(X=x) 0.8 0.1 0.05 0.03 0.02

X is the amount of faulty products produced in a day.

I am being asked to find the probability of a exactly one product being foulty in a 5 day periode.

I am a bit confused. I know from the table that the probability of exactly one faulty product in 1 day is 0.1.
But for 5 days, is it that ease just to multiply 0.1 by 5? Or is it 0,1^5?
 
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Xenix said:
I am given this probability table:

x 0 1 2 3 4
P(X=x) 0.8 0.1 0.05 0.03 0.02

X is the amount of faulty products produced in a day.

I am being asked to find the probability of a exactly one product being foulty in a 5 day periode.

I am a bit confused. I know from the table that the probability of exactly one faulty product in 1 day is 0.1.
But for 5 days, is it that ease just to multiply 0.1 by 5? Or is it 0,1^5?

No, it's not that simple. One of the days has to have a single faulty product. The other four days have to have no faulty products.
 
Ok, thank you for your answer, so then 0.1*(4*0.8)?
 
Xenix said:
Ok, thank you for your answer, so then 0.1*(4*0.8)?

No, the probability of something with probability 0.8 happening on 4 days isn't (4*0.8). That's bigger than 1! This an example of a binomial distribution problem. Don't you have a lesson on that?
 
Thanks again for the answer. It turns out there is a scheduling conflict at the uni and we are not supposed to cover that topic until next week, however the assignment is due Monday.
I managed to solve this though.
Thanks for your help! :)
 
Xenix said:
Thanks again for the answer. It turns out there is a scheduling conflict at the uni and we are not supposed to cover that topic until next week, however the assignment is due Monday.
I managed to solve this though.
Thanks for your help! :)

Good work. I was wondering why you seemed to be missing a lot of the basics to tackle this problem.
 

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