Calculating Standard Deviation for a Probability Density Function?

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The discussion focuses on calculating the standard deviation for a given probability density function, p(x) = C x exp(-x/λ), defined on the interval 0 < x < +∞. The normalization constant C is determined to be 1/λ² by ensuring the area under the curve equals one. The mean (μ) is calculated as 2λ, and the standard deviation (σ) is derived using the variance formula, resulting in σ = √(2)λ. Participants emphasize the importance of correctly applying the formulas for mean and variance, and confirm the calculations to ensure accuracy. The final expression for standard deviation is confirmed as σ = √(2)λ.
Schwarzschild90
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Homework Statement


Continuous probability.PNG


Homework Equations


See below

The Attempt at a Solution



\begin{align}
\begin{split}
p(x) = C \ x \ exp(-x/ \lambda)
\end{split}
\end{align}

If $p(x)$ is a probability density function on the interval $ 0 \textless x \textless + \infty $ , then it follows that the normalization constant can be isolated by setting the area under the curve equal to one

\begin{align}
\begin{split}
\int_0^\infty p(x) \ dx = 1 \to \\ C \int_0^\infty x \ exp(-x/ \lambda) \ dx = 1 \to \\ C \lambda^2 = 1 \to \\ C = \frac{1}{\lambda^2}
\end{split}
\end{align}

\subsection*{(b)}
The mean $\mu$ (or expection $E(X)$) of X is

\begin{align}
\begin{split}
mean = E(X) = \int_a^b x \ f(x) \ dx = \frac{1}{\lambda^2} \int_0^\infty x^2 \ exp(-x/ \lambda) \ dx = 2 \lambda^3
\end{split}
\end{align}

\subsection*{(c)}
Now, determine the standard deviation $\sigma$ of X

\begin{align}
\begin{split}
\sigma =
\end{split}
\end{align}
 
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In 3), did you forget the factor C?
Are you stuck on the standard deviation, or did your post just get truncated?
What formulae do you know related to variance and s.d.?
 
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I imagined that someone could see if what I had already done was correct

I know the following formula for variance: (E(X^2) - mu^2)
 
Schwarzschild90 said:

Homework Statement


View attachment 95542

Homework Equations


See below

The Attempt at a Solution



\begin{align}
\begin{split}
p(x) = C \ x \ exp(-x/ \lambda)
\end{split}
\end{align}

If $p(x)$ is a probability density function on the interval $ 0 \textless x \textless + \infty $ , then it follows that the normalization constant can be isolated by setting the area under the curve equal to one

\begin{align}
\begin{split}
\int_0^\infty p(x) \ dx = 1 \to \\ C \int_0^\infty x \ exp(-x/ \lambda) \ dx = 1 \to \\ C \lambda^2 = 1 \to \\ C = \frac{1}{\lambda^2}
\end{split}
\end{align}

\subsection*{(b)}
The mean $\mu$ (or expection $E(X)$) of X is

\begin{align}
\begin{split}
mean = E(X) = \int_a^b x \ f(x) \ dx = \frac{1}{\lambda^2} \int_0^\infty x^2 \ exp(-x/ \lambda) \ dx = 2 \lambda^3
\end{split}
\end{align}

\subsection*{(c)}
Now, determine the standard deviation $\sigma$ of X

\begin{align}
\begin{split}
\sigma =
\end{split}
\end{align}

Your computation of ##EX## is incorrect.

Hint: check dimensions. If ##X## happened to be a time, ##\lambda## would have dimensions of time also, and so your ##\lambda^3## would have dimensions of ##\text{time}^3## (but should be just 'time').
 
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I forgot to divide by λ2.

Now, does 2/λ seem reasonable in your eyes?
 
Schwarzschild90 said:
I forgot to divide by λ2.

Now, does 2/λ seem reasonable in your eyes?

Both reasonable and correct, not only in my eyes but absolutely.
 
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Schwarzschild90 said:
I forgot to divide by λ2.

Now, does 2/λ seem reasonable in your eyes?
Now you seem to have divided by λ4.
If you replace x with λu in the integral you can see you should get a factor λ and an integral independent of λ.
Schwarzschild90 said:
I
I know the following formula for variance: (E(X^2) - mu^2)
So turn that into an integral. You already have μ.
 
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Ray Vickson said:
Both reasonable and correct, not only in my eyes but absolutely.

Sorry: I am so used to looking at such distributions in the form ##c t e^{-\lambda t}## (that is, with ##\lambda t## instead of ##t/\lambda##) that my brain failed to process the difference in your case. So, NO: you are still not correct.
 
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Like this? I don't understand why we replace x with lambda u

\begin{align}
\begin{split}
mean = E(X) = \int_a^b x \ f(x) \ dx = \frac{1}{\lambda^2} \int_0^\infty (\lambda u)^2 \ exp(-(\lambda u)/ \lambda) \ dx =
\end{split}
\end{align}
 
  • #10
Schwarzschild90 said:
Like this? I don't understand why we replace x with lambda u

\begin{align}
\begin{split}
mean = E(X) = \int_a^b x \ f(x) \ dx = \frac{1}{\lambda^2} \int_0^\infty (\lambda u)^2 \ exp(-(\lambda u)/ \lambda) \ dx =
\end{split}
\end{align}
I was just using that to show that the final expression must be linear in lambda.
##\frac{1}{\lambda^2} \int_0^\infty (\lambda u)^2 \ exp(-(\lambda u)/ \lambda) \ d(\lambda u)=\lambda\int_0^\infty u^2e^{-u}.du##. Your first version ended up with a factor λ3 because you forgot the factor C=λ-2, but then somehow you got λ-1, as though you made the correction twice over.
 
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  • #11
So, 2\lambda would be correct?
 
  • #12
Schwarzschild90 said:
So, 2\lambda would be correct?
Yes.
 
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  • #13
Will use this formula to calculate the standard deviation
\begin{align}
\begin{split}
\sigma = std(X) =\sqrt{ \int_a^b (x-\mu)^2 \ f(x) \ dx }
\end{split}
\end{align}
 
  • #14
Schwarzschild90 said:
Will use this formula to calculate the standard deviation
\begin{align}
\begin{split}
\sigma = std(X) =\sqrt{ \int_a^b (x-\mu)^2 \ f(x) \ dx }
\end{split}
\end{align}
Ok, but you might find the form var(X)=E(X2)-E(X)2 more convenient than E((X-E(X))2).
 
  • #15
I assume sqrt(E(X2)-E(X)2)?
 
  • #16
Schwarzschild90 said:
I assume sqrt(E(X2)-E(X)2)?
For standard deviation, yes. I was quoting formulae for variance (σ2).
 
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  • #17
\begin{align}
\begin{split}
E(X^2) = \frac{1}{\lambda^2} \int_0^\infty x^3 \ exp(-x/ \lambda) \ dx = 6 \lambda^2 \\
\mu^2 = 4\lambda^2 \\
\sigma = std(X) = \sqrt{var(X)} = \sqrt{E(X^2) - \mu^2} = \sqrt{6\lambda^2 - 4\lambda^2}= \sqrt{2\lambda^2} = \sqrt{2}\lambda \\
\end{split}
\end{align}

It seems almost impossible to commit a mistake using the above equation :P, but I've been wrong before
 
Last edited:
  • #18
Schwarzschild90 said:
\begin{align}
\begin{split}
E(X^2) = \frac{1}{\lambda^2} \int_0^\infty x^3 \ exp(-x/ \lambda) \ dx = 6 \lambda^2 \\
\mu^2 = 4\lambda^2 \\
\sigma = std(X) = \sqrt{var(X)} = \sqrt{E(X^2) - \mu^2} = \sqrt{6\lambda^2 - 4\lambda^2}= \sqrt{2\lambda^2} = \sqrt{2}\lambda \\
\end{split}
\end{align}

It seems almost impossible to commit a mistake using the above equation :P, but I've been wrong before
Looks right.
 

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