Calculating the period of a pendulum

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The period of a pendulum can be calculated using the formula T = 2 * pi * sqrt(I / [M*g*D]), where I is the moment of inertia, M is the mass, g is the acceleration due to gravity, and D is the distance from the pivot to the center of gravity. The discussion highlights the application of the conservation of energy principle to derive the relationship between potential and kinetic energy in the pendulum's motion. A common point of confusion is the distinction between angular velocity (ω) at the bottom of the swing and the angular frequency in the simple harmonic motion equation θ = θ0sin(ωt).

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Let the moment of inertia of a pendulum be I and the distance from pivot to the center of gravity of the pendulum, D. Use the conversation of energy principle to show that the period of this pendulum is 2 * pi * sqrt(I / [M*g*D]).

My attempt is as follows,

I, displace the pendulum by small angle theta. Let, h, be the vertical displacement of the center of mass. The potential energy of the displaced pendulum equates to kinetic energy at the bottom. (w is omega)

Hence, m*g*h = 1/2 * I * w^2

When I rearrange the terms of this equation, I obtain, w = sqrt(2*m*g*h/I)

Substituting into the period T = 2*pi / w, I obtain T = 2*pi* sqrt(I/[2*m*g*h])

I am stuck here because I do not know how to eliminate h from the equation. Can anybody help me here? It would be very much appreciated. My apologies for the lack of latex as I am not familiar with that syntax.
 
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Welcome to PF!

Hi dummybbmm! :smile:

(have a pi: π and an theta: θ and an omega: ω and a square-root: √ and try using the X2 tag just above the Reply box :wink:)
dummybbmm said:
I, displace the pendulum by small angle theta. Let, h, be the vertical displacement of the center of mass. The potential energy of the displaced pendulum equates to kinetic energy at the bottom. (w is omega)

Hence, m*g*h = 1/2 * I * w^2

When I rearrange the terms of this equation, I obtain, w = sqrt(2*m*g*h/I)

Substituting into the period T = 2*pi / w, I obtain T = 2*pi* sqrt(I/[2*m*g*h])

I am stuck here because I do not know how to eliminate h from the equation. Can anybody help me here? It would be very much appreciated. My apologies for the lack of latex as I am not familiar with that syntax.

Isn't h the same as D?

But I don't think you have the correct formula … your ω is the angular velocity at the bottom, not the ω in the θ = θ0sinωt formula.
 
Thanks tiny-tim, you're a lifesaver.

As you said, the ω is not the same ω in the θ = θ0sinωt formula.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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