Calculating the Stern Gerlach Angle in Magnetic Fields

pivoxa15
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How can you calcualte the angle of the split of the electrons after passing it thorugh a non uniform magnetic field?

I know how to calculate it by elementary means using the magnitude of S and Sz and doing trig. But is that angle always the same no matter what intensity magnetic field its passed through?
 
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pivoxa15 said:
How can you calcualte the angle of the split of the electrons after passing it thorugh a non uniform magnetic field?

the actual magnitude of the "split" depends on the details of the apparatus and incoming beam.
 
Does it depend on the magnetic quantum number by any chance? It definitely depends on the spin quantum number.
 
pivoxa15 said:
Does it depend on the magnetic quantum number by any chance? It definitely depends on the spin quantum number.

Yeah, but often one considers atoms that have \ell=0, for example Ag atoms (as described in section 1.1 of Sakurai "Modern Quantum Mechanics"), because this type of atom makes for simpler examples.

Silver can be thought of as having a full d-band and so there is only one "valence" electron in the 5s state. Thus the total orbital angular momentum is zero, but the total spin angular momentum is \hbar/2 (and, of course, the total angular momentum is \hbar/2) and we consider the energy perturbation to be:

<br /> \Delta H \approx \mu_{\textrm{Bohr}}B_0 \sigma_z<br />

where \mu_{\textrm{Bohr}} is the Bohr Magneton and B_0 is the external field in the z-direction and \sigma_z is the Pauli matrix. So the atoms shooting out of an "oven" into the apparatus feel a force (only in the region where B_0 is changing--the "fringing" part) due to the changing B_0 field of either plus or minus
<br /> \mu_{\textrm{Bohr}} \frac{d B_0}{dz}<br />
since the spin is quantized. And thus there appear two "spots" on the detecting screen.

I believe that you can figure out the approximate angular distance between the spots using
<br /> 2\theta \approx 2\frac{\delta p}{p} = 2\frac{\int F dt}{p} \approx 2\frac{B_0\mu_{\textrm{Bohr}}/v}{mv}<br /> =\frac{B_0 \mu_{\textrm{Bohr}}}{E_0}<br />
where E is the incident energy of the atom. The above is quite approximate indeed and should only hold for \mu B_0 << E_0.
 
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