Calculating the Volume of Revolution for e^x + 1 on x-axis

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around calculating the volume of revolution for the function y = e^x + 1, specifically when the region bounded by this curve, the y-axis, and the line x = ln(2) is rotated around the x-axis. Participants are exploring the integral setup and the necessary steps to arrive at the correct volume expression.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the integral formulation for the volume of revolution and question the correctness of their integration steps. There are attempts to clarify the integration process and the manipulation of the resulting expressions to match a given answer.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided guidance on the integration steps and the simplification process. There is an ongoing exploration of the relationship between logarithmic properties and the final expression. Multiple interpretations of the integration steps are being discussed, with no explicit consensus reached yet.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working under the constraints of homework rules, which may limit the amount of direct assistance they can provide to one another. There is a recognition of common mistakes in integration that may affect the discussion.

Hootenanny
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If the finite region bounded by the curve [itex]y = \text{e}^{x} +1[/itex], the y-axis and the line [itex]x = \ln2[/itex] is rotatated around the x-axis by [itex]360^{\circ}[/itex] show that the volume of the solid formed is:
[tex]\frac{\pi}{2} (7 + \ln4 )[/tex]
I did the intergral and got:
[tex]V = \pi \left[ (\text{e}^{4} + 2\text{e}^{2} +1) - (1 + 2 + 1) \right][/tex]
But I can't see how I can manipulate it to get the required answer. :confused: Any help would be much appreciated.
 
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You won't be able to rewrite it like that since they aren't the same.
Perhaps you could show how you got that?
 
[tex]V = \int_{0}^{\ln2} \pi\left[ f(x) \right]^2 \;\; dx[/tex]
[tex]V = \pi \int_{0}^{\ln2} \left[ e^{x} +1 \right]^2 \;\; dx = \pi \int_{0}^{\ln2} e^{2x} + 2e^{x} +1 \;\; dx[/tex]
[tex]V = \pi \left[ (e^{4} + 2e^{2} +1) - (1 + 2 + 1) \right][/tex]
 
[tex]V = \pi \int_{0}^{\ln2} e^{2x} + 2e^{x} +1 dx[/tex]

This is still correct, the next step isn't. Show the primitive function first, then substitute the boundaries.
 
I dear, I see that I've forgot to intergrate. That was a bit stupid wasn't it?
 
Hootenanny said:
I dear, I see that I've forgot to intergrate. That was a bit stupid wasn't it?
I think that happens at least once to everyone :smile:
 
Have I intergrated correctly? I get:
[tex]V = \pi \left[ \frac{1}{2} e^{2x} + 2e^{x} + x \right]^{\ln2}_{0}[/tex]
 
Looks good, see if you can come to the given answer.
 
The subsituting the values ln2 and 0 in gives:
[tex]V = \pi \left[ \left( \frac{1}{2}\cdot4 + 4 + \ln2 \right) - \left( \frac{1}{2} + 2 \right) \right][/tex]
Simplifying:
[tex]\pi \left[ \frac{7}{2} + \ln2 \right][/tex]
I can't see where I go now. I know I'm close.
 
  • #10
You are close indeed :smile:

Factor out 1/2 so you get the [itex]\pi/2[/itex] which is there in the given answer, then think of a property of logarithms...
 
  • #11
O yes, I forgot [itex]2\cdot \ln2 = ln4[/itex]. My brains obviously not in gear today. Thanks very much.
 
  • #12
Well done :smile:
 

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