Calculating Variance of Independent Random Variables: A Simple Guide

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The discussion centers on calculating the variance of independent random variables and the misunderstanding surrounding the independence of random variables in relation to their expected values. Participants explore why E(X^2) does not equal E(X)*E(X) when X refers to a single random variable, emphasizing that independence applies to different random variables rather than the same one. The conversation highlights the importance of mathematical definitions and properties in understanding these concepts, suggesting that a deeper engagement with the math is necessary for clarity. Ultimately, the thread underscores the distinction between independent variables and their expected values, encouraging a more rigorous approach to the calculations involved.
ericm1234
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1. I know var(x)=E(x^2)-E(x)^2; is there a repeated way to use this to attain var(x^2)? Or how in general, without resorting to integration, can I calculate it?

2. We typically deal with "i.i.d random variables X_i" and do things like find var(X) given E(X^2) etc..it never occurred to me until now, but if the X's are "independent" then why is E(x^2) not equal to E(x)*E(X)?? (the answer I'm awaiting will probably be obvious, though I can't figure this out right now)
 
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1. put Y=X^2 and find var(y).
2. do the math and see.
 
Doesn't help because I then need to find E(x^4); I'm dealing with a continuous function, hence my question about trying to avoid integrating.

"do the math" doesn't help my understanding. The term 'independent' is used in regards to a series of random variables X from the same distribution and yet the definition of independence doesn't apply here as far as E(X^2)+E(X)*E(X) being true.
 
I can make up an example to show it's obviously not true; I'm asking for an explanation of the use of the word independent in this context.
 
Doesn't help because I then need to find E(x^4); I'm dealing with a continuous function, hence my question about trying to avoid integrating.
I suspect you have misunderstood - you asked a question - I pointed you to the path where you are most likely to be able to find the answer. This objection/protest suggests to me that you found the answer - thus: it did help ;)

But it is possible that I misunderstood - perhaps you could rephrase your question?

i'm asking for an explanation of the use of the word independent in this context.
I'm afraid I can only answer the questions you write down. You wrote:
if the X's are "independent" then why is E(x^2) not equal to E(x)*E(X)?
... and that was the question I answered.
You are correct that a specific example will not suffice - have to work harder than that.
Try rewriting the question as a mathematical statement you have to prove/disprove. i.e. ##E[X^2]=[E[X]]^2## ... but expand it to the definitions.

Now to your new question:
The word "independent" is a label for a set of mathematical properties that you can best understand by doing the math. Turn the thought around: what is it about the mathematical property of "independent", in this context, that leads you to think E(x^2) should have that form?
 
It is by the definition of "independence" in statistics that E(X*Y)=E(X)*E(Y). If two X's are independent should not E(X^2)=E(X)*E(X) from this context?
A bunch of iid X's from say, a normal distribution are independent with each other and yet do not fit the above defintion of independence. Please explain/point out where my simplistic reasoning has failed.
It was awhile ago that I dealt with my stats material; I am looking for a straight forward explanation of why these two uses of the word "independent" do not mesh; I am not looking for an exercise.
 
The reason E(X^2)=E(X)*E(X) does not work is that X refers not to two different random variables, identically distributed but independent, but to a single random variable.
You don't need to carry out the integrations to see mathematically why the two expressions E(X^2) and E(X)*E(X) are not the same, just do this:

Step 1: Write out the integral that gives E(X^2)

Step 2: Write out the product of the two integrals that give E(X) * E(x)

and think about why the two expressions are not the same
 
Thanks statdad - that's pretty much what I've been trying to get ericm1234 to do ;)
Spelling it out is the next step.

@ericm1234:
Since you resist writing down any actual math... try thinking about it this way:
if you have two distributions Y and Z, but both of them depend on a third distribution X, then are Y and Z independent of each other? i.e. is X independent of itself?

But seriously, you must get used to thinking in terms of the actual math.
 
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