Can a Primitive Root of p Also Be a Primitive Root of p^2?

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SUMMARY

The discussion establishes that if \( x \) is a primitive root of an odd prime \( p \) and \( x^{p-1} \) is not congruent to 1 modulo \( p^2 \), then \( x \) is also a primitive root of \( p^2 \). It utilizes Fermat's Little Theorem and properties of orders in modular arithmetic to derive that the order of \( x \) modulo \( p^2 \) is \( n = p(p-1) \), confirming that \( x \) meets the criteria for being a primitive root of \( p^2 \). The discussion also notes that the result is vacuously true for \( p = 2 \).

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of primitive roots in number theory
  • Fermat's Little Theorem
  • Concept of order in modular arithmetic
  • Binomial expansion
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  • Study the properties of primitive roots in modular arithmetic
  • Learn about Fermat's Little Theorem and its applications
  • Explore the concept of order of an element in group theory
  • Investigate advanced topics in number theory, such as the structure of multiplicative groups modulo \( n \)
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Mathematicians, number theorists, and students studying modular arithmetic and primitive roots, particularly those interested in advanced properties of primes and their powers.

Poirot1
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Show that if $x$ is a primitive root of p, and $x^{p-1}$ is not congruent to 1 mod$p^2$, then x is a primitive root of $p^2$
 
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Re: primitive root challenge

Poirot said:
Show that if $x$ is a primitive root of p, and $x^{p-1}$ is not congruent to 1 mod$p^2$, then x is a primitive root of $p^2$

We assume $p$ is an odd prime.

By Fermat, $x^{p-1}\equiv 1\pmod{p}$.
Thus $x^{p-1}=pk+1$. By hypothesis, $p\not |k$.
Let order of $x$ mod $p^2$ be $n$. Then $x^n\equiv 1\pmod{p}$, therefore $(p-1)|n$ (since order of $x$ mod $p$ is $p-1$).
Write $n=l(p-1)$.
So we have $x^n=(pk+1)^{l}\equiv 1\pmod{p^2}$.
So we have $lpk+1\equiv 1\pmod{p^2}$.
Thus $p|(lk)$.
Since $p$ doesn't divide $k$, we have $p|l$ and now its easy to show that $n=p(p-1)=\varphi(p^2)$ and we are done.
 
Re: primitive root challenge

caffeinemachine said:
So we have $x^n=(pk+1)^{l}\equiv 1\pmod{p^2}$.

So we have $lpk+1\equiv 1\pmod{p^2}$.

What is the logic in this step?
Also, note the result is vacuously true when p=2.
 
Re: primitive root challenge

Poirot said:
What is the logic in this step?
Also, note the result is vacuously true when p=2.
Hello Poirot,

By Binomial expansion we have $(1+pk)^l=1+pkl+p^2t$ for some integer $t$.
Now it should be clear I believe.
 

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