caveat: im probably using wrong terms. help me understand this as ive been told im wrong. it makes perfect sense that once a force is removed from a vehicle that it wont be able to sustain the same rate of acceleration when the force was applied. my argument is that i believe there is a calculable rate in acceleration that once power is removed there will be enough inertia to over come the forces acting against the vehicle; allowing the vehicle to continue gaining velocity to a point. i will add that i think this "calculable rate of acceleration" i mention is tangible, as i believe my vehicle has the ability to gain velocity during some shifts. heres me trying to explain again what makes sense to me with my very limited physics understanding. two identical cars, in identical conditions and are both traveling at 60mph when power is removed. one of the cars (car a) was using cruise control to maintain 60mph while the other car (car b) was under 2g's of acceleration when it reached 60mph. both these cars would travel the same distance after power was removed? its very difficult for me to except the explanation ive already received and perhaps with the saturation of intellects that frequent this site you can bring closure to this conundrum of mine=/.