Can Baker-Hausdorff lemma be used to prove this operator relation?

AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around proving the operator relation involving exponentials of angular momentum operators, specifically the expression exp(-iφhat{j_{i}})exp(iθhat{j_{k}})exp(iφhat{j_{i}}). The user successfully applies the Baker-Hausdorff lemma to show a simpler relation involving the operator hat{j_{k}}, but encounters difficulties when attempting to extend this proof to the full expression. They attempt to use a Taylor series expansion but struggle with the higher powers of hat{j_{k}}. The user expresses frustration over the complexity of the calculations and seeks clarification on the implications of squaring the previously proven relation. Ultimately, the discussion highlights the challenges of applying the Baker-Hausdorff lemma in this context.
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I'm having a problem proving this operator relation:

exp(-i\phi\hat{j_{i}})exp(i\theta\hat{j_{k}})exp(i\phi\hat{j_{i}})=exp(i\theta(cos(\phi)\hat{j_{k}}+sin(\phi)\hat{j_{l}}) (1)

where

[\hat{j_{i}}, \hat{j_{k}}]=i\epsilon_{ikl}\hat{j_{l}}. (2)

I can prove this for:

exp(-i\phi\hat{j_{i}})\hat{j_{k}}exp(i\phi\hat{j_{i}})=cos(\phi)\hat{j_{k}}+sin(\phi)\hat{j_{l}} (3)

using Baker-Hausdorff lemma.

Now what I do when I'm trying to prove the first expresion, I expand the middle term in Taylor series, and then trying to use this lemma again, but problem arisses with higher powers of \hat{j_{k}}.

exp(-i\phi\hat{j_{i}})(1+i\theta\hat{j_{k}}+\frac{(i\theta\hat{j_{k}})^2}{2!}+\frac{(i\theta\hat{j_{k}})^3}{3!}+...)exp(i\phi\hat{j_{i}})

The first term:

exp(-i\phi\hat{j_{i}})exp(i\phi\hat{j_{i}})=1

Second term (what I was able to prove (3)):

i\theta(exp(-i\phi\hat{j_{i}}))\hat{j_{k}}exp(i\phi\hat{j_{i}})=i\theta(cos(\phi)\hat{j_{k}}+sin(\phi)\hat{j_{l}})

And now a problem arisses:

\frac{(i\theta)^nexp(-i\phi\hat{j_{i}})(\hat{j_{k}})^nexp(i\phi\hat{j_{i}})}{n!}

If (1) is true than it should be:

(i\theta)^nexp(-i\phi\hat{j_{i}})(\hat{j_{k}})^nexp(i\phi\hat{j_{i}})/n!=\frac{(i\theta(cos(\phi)\hat{j_{k}}+sin(\phi)\hat{j_{l}}))^n}{n!}

becoase

exp(i\theta(cos(\phi)\hat{j_{k}}+sin(\phi)\hat{j_{l}})=1+(cos(\phi)\hat{j_{k}}+sin(\phi)\hat{j_{l}})+\frac{(i\theta(cos(\phi)\hat{j_{k}}+sin(\phi)\hat{j_{l}}))^2}{2!}+...

but, I can't prove this. Using Baker-Hausdorff lemma for each term becomes too complicated and I get lose in all that mess.
 
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What happens when you square equation 3?
 
Hurkyl said:
What happens when you square equation 3?
Nooo, it can't bee :).
I spent all night trying to solve this in most complicated ways and I didn't saw this...

Thank you very much!
 
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