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utkarshakash said:You cannot give an impulse such that the ring starts rolling without slipping on a frictionless surface. I would rather like to suggest you refer to HC Verma Part 1. I have sorted out some problems that might make you think on your reasoning once again. Worked Out Examples- Q.No- 25, 29. Exercises- Q.No. - 80, 81, 82.
In each of these questions we considered rough road and took the axis of rotation to be passing through contact point of sphere, so that we could conserve angular momentum of the sphere system. This truly reveals that friction(Static) is necessary to bring pure rolling.
haruspex said:Pls quote the passage you wish to bring to our attention. (Mostly the article seems to be about speaking of friction as opposing motion instead of as opposing relative motion of the surfaces. Indeed, is that error at the root of your objection? You understand that once rolling is established on a horizontal surface there is no frictional force, right?)
Friction opposes skidding or slipping. Without it, what thing will prevent the object to slip? Your explanation states that during pure rolling friction does not work and it is not involved. But, that does not even mean that there can be pure rolling initiated without the aid of friction, i.e. on a frictionless road. Does it ?
As ehild pointed out, you could have rolling occurring on a frictionless surface in consequence of the ring first rolling on a frictional surface then transiting to a smooth one. I suspected that would not satisfy you because friction was still involved in establishing the rolling motion, but it does demonstrate that if the linear velocity just happens to be rω, by whatever means, then you have frictionless rolling. So I set up an example of how exactly the right combination can occur merely by judicious application of an impulse. Did you do the algebra?
Yes, Vcm=Rω, the condition of pure rolling once established, does not need friction, but again this condition cannot be without the help of friction. I did the algebra in the questions posted by utkarshakash of H.C. Verma.
haruspex:
Because the impulse is purely horizontal. This means there is no impulsive downward force, so no impulsive normal reaction. The author of the question appears to be testing the reader's ability to deduce that no matter how rough the surface is it would be unable to prevent slipping if the ball were struck at just any old height. Only if it is struck at exactly the right height will the resulting horizontal impulse and angular impulse be so as to produce rolling motion straight away. In short, the surface might just as well be smooth, but it's up to the reader to figure that out.
Friction does not act for a very short time. It keeps the relative motion opposed(in case of kinetic) and it endeavours to bring the condition of relative momentary rest(in case of static). Maybe I am overlooking your post, but I cannot fathom what you said. Can you please explain ?