Can Determinism and Responsibility Coexist in Human Actions?

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The discussion challenges the conventional view that free will is necessary for moral responsibility, arguing instead that responsibility hinges on whether an individual would have acted differently if given the choice, regardless of actual possibilities. This perspective aligns with determinism, suggesting that the existence of genuine alternate possibilities is irrelevant for assigning responsibility. The conversation includes examples like Frankfurt-style cases, where external manipulation influences decisions, yet responsibility is assessed based on the individual's potential choices. Participants debate the implications of artificial influences on will and the distinction between "could" and "would" in moral contexts. Ultimately, the discourse emphasizes that understanding responsibility involves examining the mental aspect of decision-making rather than purely physical constraints.
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Our naïve intuition about responsibility is that we cannot be held responsible if we do not have free will. Under this naïve intuitive account, if I could not have done otherwise than what I did, then I cannot be held responsible for what I did. Such an account is clearly incompatible with determinism, hence the oft-quoted mantra “determinism entails that I am not responsible for my actions”.

I wish to challenge this naïve intuitive view of responsibility. The view I shall put forward is broadly based on the Frankfurt-style cases investigated by John Fischer and Mark Ravizza, and on work further developed by Susan Hurley (http://www.warwick.ac.uk/staff/S.L.Hurley/papers/rria.pdf )

According to Hurley, what really matters for responsibility is whether we would have done otherwise, if we could have done otherwise. This counterfactual perspective means that if person A, in performing act X, would not have done otherwise (even if she could have done otherwise) then A is responsible for X whether or not she actually could have done otherwise. In other words, the ability to do otherwise (the existence of genuine alternate possibilities) is a red-herring in the assignment of responsibility. The only thing that matters is whether A would have done otherwise, and it is irrelevant whether or not she could have.

Such an account of responsibility is completely compatible with determinism.

I would be interested in the views of other members.

Best Regards
 
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What is the difference between would and could? May you please elucidate?
 
Outlandish_Existence said:
What is the difference between would and could? May you please elucidate?
I could have done X = it was physically possible for me to do X (but it does not follow that I necessarily would have done X)

Example : Fred was holding a gun, and it was possible for him to shoot John. But though it was possible that Fred could shoot John, shooting John is not something that Fred would (want to) do.

I would have done X = Doing X would be my choice, if I had the choice to do X (but it does not follow that I necessarily have the choice; it does not follow that it is physically possible for me to do X)

Example : Fred is forced, against his will, to shoot John. Fred maintains that he did not want to shoot John, he would have chosen NOT to shoot John if he could have had the choice. But he did not have the choice. Thus Fred is not responsible for shooting John (because he would have chosen not to shoot him, given the choice).

Best Regards
 
Can one truly be forced to commit an act against another, against one's own will? Is not to be forced to do an act, an act of giving in? Therefore an act of one's own will... since out of one's own will one has decided to submit to another's will. In spite of everything... it IS one's decision.
 
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Outlandish_Existence said:
Can one truly be forced to commit an act against another, against one's own will? Is not to be forced to do an act, an act of giving in? Therefore an act of one's own will... since out of one's own will one has decided to submit to another's will.
If one is physically incapable of doing what one wants to do, yes one can be forced to commit an act against one's will. The classical example is given by so-called Frankfurt-style cases. Here is one example (from Fischer):

Jones is in a voting booth deliberating whether to vote for Bush or Kerry. Unbeknownst to Jones, a neurosurgeon, Black, has implanted a mechanism in Jones's brain that allows Black to monitor Jones's neural states and alter them if need be. Black is a diehard Democrat, and should Black detect neural activity indicating that a choice for Bush is forthcoming, Black is prepared to activate his mechanism to ensure that Jones instead votes for Kerry. As a matter of fact, Jones chooses on his own to vote for Kerry, so Black never intervenes.

In the above case, Jones would thus have ended up voting for Kerry no matter what he (Jones) wanted to do.

Best Regards
 
So isn't would eradicated from the equation altogether now? If one is truly being brain controlled... then one wouldn't know the difference in the aftermath of the decision that he had made unless someone told "one" that one was being directed by a mind control interface device. All one knows is that one's decision is as is... one is not aware that one is being mind controlled... it appears to one to be his own will in action. When one's decisions are taken over by an outside source or albeit some other "power" by manipulation of the "natural" means in which one's brain functions, then in one's existence, one's own will now becomes unforced from his own personal perception. Therefore one cannot decipher the "would" of the situation. One experiences the happening as if one has made one's own decision.
 
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Outlandish_Existence said:
So isn't would eradicated from the equation altogether now? If one is truly being brain controlled... then one wouldn't know the difference in the aftermath of the decision that he had made unless someone told "one" that one was being directed by a mind control interface device. All one knows is that one's decision is as is... one is not aware that one is being mind controlled... it appears to one to be his own will in action.
In the example given, Jones is not aware, but Black is aware. From Black's point of view (and anyone else outside of Jones who knows the facts), it is possible to say whether Jones was responsible for the act or not - because responsibility follows from what Jones would have done if he had been given the choice (whether or not he actually had any choice), and not from what he actually did.

Indeed, Jones could also be made aware of the outcome subsequent to the episode (Black might tell him what had happened), in which Jones would also then be aware of whether he was responsible for his decision or not.

Best Regards
 
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Is a natural yet artificially produced choice not one's will?
 
Outlandish_Existence said:
Is a natural yet artificially produced choice not one's will?
isn't an "artificially produced natural" choice an oxymoron?
 
  • #10
I think anything dealing with the term "artificial" should be obliterated :) All things are natural. To answer your question... natural by means of energy... artificial meaning; being that is controlled by an "outside" source.
 
  • #11
Outlandish_Existence said:
I think anything dealing with the term "artificial" should be obliterated :) All things are natural. To answer your question... natural by means of energy... artificial meaning; being that is controlled by an "outside" source.
ok - but you introduced the term "artificial" into the discussion!

are you suggesting that something which is "controlled by an outside source" (ie external to the person) would still count as part of the person's will?

Best Regards
 
  • #12
Yes, I did... poor verbal/written responsibility.

I am saying that the brain is being controlled... yet manipulated by natural means... well, all things 'are' existing by natural means. I think it's a quandary to have such technology. Haha. Give me some time to deliberate on this, Finger.
 
  • #13
moving finger said:
According to Hurley, what really matters for responsibility is whether we would have done otherwise, if we could have done otherwise. This counterfactual perspective means that if person A, in performing act X, would not have done otherwise (even if she could have done otherwise) then A is responsible for X whether or not she actually could have done otherwise. In other words, the ability to do otherwise (the existence of genuine alternate possibilities) is a red-herring in the assignment of responsibility. The only thing that matters is whether A would have done otherwise, and it is irrelevant whether or not she could have.

Such an account of responsibility is completely compatible with determinism.

I would be interested in the views of other members.

Best Regards

I think that he is somewhat mixing emergent layers.
What happens on the physical level of any choice, is not the same as what happens in an agents mind, we need to separate the two.
That's why people who are allegedly "insane" are relieved of their jailtime and rather sent into some institution for the mentally ill, because they were insane and had no choice.
Great simplification aside, my point is that we have created our own world, our perceived world, and this is really all that matters.
Even if someone would prove that "hey guys we are all robots following the physical laws" wouldn't you still feel responsibility inside if you killed someone?
Wouldn't you even ask yourself "did I have a choice?"

The most likely answer from anyone would be "yes I did have a choice!"

I know it's not exactly what you were saying, but I have a feeling that "could" is physical, and "would" is a mental option.
 
  • #14
Outlandish_Existence said:
Yes, I did... poor verbal/written responsibility.

I am saying that the brain is being controlled... yet manipulated by natural means... well, all things 'are' existing by natural means. I think it's a quandary to have such technology. Haha. Give me some time to deliberate on this, Finger.
OK, will do.

Best Regards
 
  • #15
octelcogopod said:
That's why people who are allegedly "insane" are relieved of their jailtime and rather sent into some institution for the mentally ill, because they were insane and had no choice.
I disagree.

Necessary conditions for responsibility are (a) that one can reasonably anticipate the consequences of one’s actions, and (b) that one possesses an understanding of right and wrong.

An insane person, just like a very young child, may not be able to satisfy conditions (a) and/or (b) – and that is why we allow that an insane person, or a very young child, is not responsible for their actions – not because “they had no choice”.

octelcogopod said:
Great simplification aside, my point is that we have created our own world, our perceived world, and this is really all that matters.
Agreed.

octelcogopod said:
Even if someone would prove that "hey guys we are all robots following the physical laws" wouldn't you still feel responsibility inside if you killed someone?
Wouldn't you even ask yourself "did I have a choice?"
Agreed. This is exactly what I mean when I say that responsibility depends on what we would do (if we had a choice), not what we could do.

octelcogopod said:
The most likely answer from anyone would be "yes I did have a choice!"
Of course we think we had a choice. That is not disputed.

octelcogopod said:
I know it's not exactly what you were saying, but I have a feeling that "could" is physical, and "would" is a mental option.
Would does not entail could. We can always ask “what would I have done if X?”, even if X is not a physical possibility. We can never know whether unrealised alternate possibilities were genuine possibilities or not (or just illusions of possibilities), but that doesn’t prevent us from saying “if I could do X, then I would do X”.

Best Regards
 
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  • #16
moving finger said:
According to Hurley, what really matters for responsibility is whether we would have done otherwise, if we could have done otherwise. This counterfactual perspective means that if person A, in performing act X, would not have done otherwise (even if she could have done otherwise) then A is responsible for X whether or not she actually could have done otherwise.

This compatiblist argument falls to counterexamples where the individual's
desires are artificially implanted.

"However, if John were to hypnotise James into being a willing and eager slave whose only desire was to do John's bidding, Hobbes -- but few others -- would say James was free, since he was doing what he wanted. Hobbes' theory seems to miss something, the ability to *choose* what one wants".


In other words, the ability to do otherwise (the existence of genuine alternate possibilities) is a red-herring in the assignment of responsibility. The only thing that matters is whether A would have done otherwise, and it is irrelevant whether or not she could have.

No, because to counter the argumetns form hypnosis, brainwahsing,
etc, an individuals wants have to originate within themselves,
and such origination (naturalistically) require uncaused caused,
i.e. indeterminism.
 
  • #17
Outlandish_Existence said:
Can one truly be forced to commit an act against another, against one's own will? Is not to be forced to do an act, an act of giving in? Therefore an act of one's own will... since out of one's own will one has decided to submit to another's will. In spite of everything... it IS one's decision.

One doesn't have a single desire at a time. If someone
points a gun at your head and makes you rob a bank,
you are doing something against one desire
(the desire to be law-abiding) but in favour of another
(the desire to continue living).

According to one plausible analysis, one's "true" desire
is the one backed up by other, higher desires, desires.
So the dieter has a desire to scoff the cake, but their
true
desire -- they desrie they want to have -- is the desire not to scoff it.
 
  • #18
Tournesol said:
No, because to counter the argumetns form hypnosis, brainwahsing, etc, an individuals wants have to originate within themselves, and such origination (naturalistically) require uncaused caused, i.e. indeterminism.
How can a "want" that originates in indeterminism be the basis for responsibility? By definition, I am not in control of such an indeterministically caused want, therefore cannot be held responsible for it.

Best Regards
 
  • #19
moving finger said:
How can a "want" that originates in indeterminism be the basis for responsibility?

How can a want that originates in determinism be a basis for responsibility?

You are probably appelaig to the "do not pass go" argument, the
idea that there is nothing to an indeterministics choice except
whatever process gernerated it. I my model, choices genreated
by the RIG have to got through the SIS, which is where control lies.
 
  • #20
Tournesol said:
How can a want that originates in determinism be a basis for responsibility?
Precisely in the way that has been described here.

If I do X, whilst believing that Y is an alternate possibility (ie I believe that I could have done Y if I had wanted to), then I am responsible, as long as I can claim that "I would still have done X, even if I could have done Y".

Whether Y is a genuine alternate possibility or not is irrelevant to responsibility, as long as I believe it is an alternate possibility.

Tournesol said:
I my model, choices genreated by the RIG have to got through the SIS, which is where control lies.
The outcome of your model is either deterministic (it is in control) or it is random (it is not in control), depending on the parameters you choose for the model. It has nothing to do with free will.

Best Regards
 
  • #21
MF said:
If I do X, whilst believing that Y is an alternate possibility (ie I believe that I could have done Y if I had wanted to), then I am responsible, as long as I can claim that "I would still have done X, even if I could have done Y".

But if determinism is true, you can only have responsibility
so long as you have the false belief that there are alternative
possibilities. available. So no determinist has moral responsibility..
according to determinsm.
Whether Y is a genuine alternate possibility or not is irrelevant to responsibility, as long as I believe it is an alternate possibility.

You said it!
I my model, choices genreated by the RIG have to got through the SIS, which is where control lies.

The outcome of your model is either deterministic (it is in control) or it is random (it is not in control), depending on the parameters you choose for the model. It has nothing to do with free will.

FW is constitutued by the right combination of parameters. You are using
the Basicness Assumption.
 
  • #22
Tournesol said:
But if determinism is true, you can only have responsibility so long as you have the false belief that there are alternative possibilities. available. So no determinist has moral responsibility..according to determinsm.
Good point, I need to correct that error

I unfortunately allowed myself to get diverted from the OP. It is actually the belief in the condition "I would have done X, even if I could have done otherwise" which gives rise to responsibility. I do not need to believe that I could have done otherwise, I only need to believe that "I would have done X, even if I could have done otherwise".

Tournesol said:
FW is constitutued by the right combination of parameters. You are using
the Basicness Assumption.
There is no combination of parameters in your model which results in free will - one either gets determinism, arbitrariness, or an unknown mixture of the two. But not free will.

How would you "test" your model to see whether it really results in free will or not? How would you propose to distinguish the output from determinism, arbitrariness, or an unknown mixture of the two?

Best Regards
 
  • #23
Let’s explain it another way, this time starting from the normal intuitive idea of responsibility.

I would analyse responsibility for an action X in the following way:

Premise 1 : I did X
Premise 2 : I could have done otherwise.
Premise 3 : I believe that “I would have done X, even if I could have done otherwise”
Premise 4 : I understand the reasonably expected consequences of doing X and of doing otherwise, and I have an understanding of right and wrong

(Premise 4 is a natural necessary condition of responsibility that has nothing to do with free will or determinism – we cannot hold an agent responsible for an action if that agent did not have an understanding of right and wrong, or did not understand the reasonably expected consequences of its actions).

Now I define responsibility as : If Premises 1, 3 and 4 are true, then I am responsible for my act X.

Our naïve intuitive view of responsibility would also assume that Premise 2 is true for responsibility to hold. If we assume the truth of Premise 2, the above (I believe) is completely consistent with the libertarian view of responsibility based on free will.

But the truth/falsity of Premise 2 has absolutely no bearing on the issue of responsibility at all. Even if Premise 2 is false, Premises 1, 3 and 4 can still all be true, hence I would still be responsible for my act X.

Best Regards
 
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  • #24
MF said:
I unfortunately allowed myself to get diverted from the OP. It is actually the belief in the condition "I would have done X, even if I could have done otherwise" which gives rise to responsibility. I do not need to believe that I could have done otherwise, I only need to believe that "I would have done X, even if I could have done otherwise".

And the causal history of the desire...hypnosis counterexamples ?


There is no combination of parameters in your model which results in free will - one either gets determinism, arbitrariness, or an unknown mixture of the two. But not free will.


You seem very sure that FW is not a mixture, How can
you be so sure ?

How would you "test" your model to see whether it really results in free will or not?

By performing a concpetual analysis of FW.

How would you propose to distinguish the output from determinism, arbitrariness, or an unknown mixture of the two?

How do you distinguish water from hydorgen and oxygen ?
 
  • #25
Tournesol said:
One doesn't have a single desire at a time. If someone
points a gun at your head and makes you rob a bank,
you are doing something against one desire
(the desire to be law-abiding) but in favour of another
(the desire to continue living).

According to one plausible analysis, one's "true" desire
is the one backed up by other, higher desires, desires.
So the dieter has a desire to scoff the cake, but their
true
desire -- they desrie they want to have -- is the desire not to scoff it.

Here is a what desire is.

Think as you wish to be and you will become that of your desired thoughts, all thoughts are desires and manifest into being, and they are what constitutes the being. Thoughts are the being and the being is the thought. One is whatever that one thinks; the limitation is in the thought of limit.
Every thought is a desire.

If someone points a gun to your head... you have the choice to fight back/be killed... or rob the bank... once you give into robbing the bank, you have made a decision with your own will. Now with your own will/desire/thought you have decided to rob the bank. Your will is yours and no one elses. YOU make your own decisions no matter what the circumstance is... unless of course... you're truly being mind controlled.
 
  • #26
Tournesol said:
And the causal history of the desire...hypnosis counterexamples ?
These are wonderful examples which show (whether free will is true or false) that we cannot necessarily know whether an act follows from original willingness on the part of the agent, or whether the agent has somehow been “manipulated” behind the scenes to do something that they did not actually want to do.

Similar scenarios are the Frankfurt-style cases, of which I gave the example :
Jones is in a voting booth deliberating whether to vote for Bush or Kerry. Unbeknownst to Jones, a neurosurgeon, Black, has implanted a mechanism in Jones's brain that allows Black to monitor Jones's neural states and alter them if need be. Black is a diehard Democrat, and should Black detect neural activity indicating that a choice for Bush is forthcoming, Black is prepared to activate his mechanism to ensure that Jones instead votes for Kerry. As a matter of fact, Jones chooses on his own to vote for Kerry, so Black never intervenes.

Now the reason I posted this example is because Jones is evidently responsible for the decision to vote for Kerry – though Black COULD have intervened and manipulated Jones, he did not have to, since Jones voted for Kerry of his own will. But in fact, unknown to Jones, there is no way that he could NOT have voted for Kerry (because Black would have not allowed him to), thus Jones could not have done otherwise – there were no alternate possibilities open to him (though he did not know that). Jones voted for Kerry thinking to himself “I would still vote for Kerry, even if I could do otherwise”. Jones was responsible for that vote – even though he had (unbeknownst to him) no choice.

The point of these examples is that they show that responsibilty for an action does NOT entail "could have done otherwise", it entails only "I would not have done otherwise, even if I could have done otherwise". If we know exactly what is going on behind the scenes, then we also know whether the agent in question acted of her own will, or whether she was forced to act by some external source (either via hypnosis or neural implants or whatever). But the same examples apply whether one believes in free will or not – even if free will is “true”, we can still play out these kinds of examples – and these examples simply show that it may be the case in certain situations that we simply do not know if people are acting according to their will, or that they are being manipulated - but in either case responsibility entails only that the agent in question did what it did according to its will, responsibility does not entail "could have done otherwise".

So now over to you - what is your point as far as these examples go, Tournesol?

Tournesol said:
You seem very sure that FW is not a mixture, How can you be so sure ?
If you wish to define free will as a mixture of determinism and indeterminism, and indistinguishable from such a mixture, then I have no problem with that – because there is nothing in such a definition which is inconsistent with either determinism or indeterminism But imho that is not what “free will” means to most libertarians.


Quote:
moving finger said:
How would you "test" your model to see whether it really results in free will or not?



Tournesol said:
By performing a concpetual analysis of FW.
OK. Has this been done?

Tournesol said:
How do you distinguish water from hydorgen and oxygen ?
That’s an easy one, Tournesol.
Firstly, let’s establish the principle of “distinguishability”. To distinguish A from B, first define some necessary conditions of each of A and B which are distinguishable. Then test A and B to see whether they meet those particular conditions. However, if the necessary conditions for A are the same as for B, then by definition A and B are indistingusihable.

Now we apply this to water on the one hand, and hydrogen and oxygen (I am assuming a simple mixture of) on the other.
There are many “necessary” conditions for water – we need only choose one or two to ensure distinguishability from our mixture of hydrogen and oxygen. Let’s say “is a liquid at room temperature and pressure”. In the case of a mixture of hydrogen and oxygen we may say “is a gas at room temperature and pressure”.

Neither of these conditions is alone sufficient for us to claim that our sample of water is water, or that our sample of hydrogen and oxygen is a sample of hydrogen and oxygen, but they ARE sufficient to distinguish between water on the one hand, and hydrogen and oxygen on the other.

OK, now over to you. How would you distinguish between genuine free will on the one hand, and a simple but arbitrary mixture of determinism and arbitrariness (what I claim is the output of your Darwinian model) on the other?

Best Regards
 
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  • #28
Outlandish_Existence said:
once you give into robbing the bank, you have made a decision with your own will. Now with your own will/desire/thought you have decided to rob the bank. Your will is yours and no one elses. YOU make your own decisions no matter what the circumstance is... unless of course... you're truly being mind controlled.
I agree with all of this - and none of it entails either "could have done otherwise", or that determinism is false.

All that is entailed by the above is (a) that we have a will and (b) that we are free to act according to that will. If we also believe that we would have so acted even if we could have done otherwise, then it follows that we are responsible for our actions.

Best Regards
 
  • #29
MF said:
And the causal history of the desire...hypnosis counterexamples ?
These are wonderful examples which show (whether free will is true or false) that we cannot necessarily know whether an act follows
from original willingness on the part of the agent, or whether the agent has somehow been “manipulated” behind the scenes to do
something that they did not actually want to do.

We can in principle know about things like neurological manipulation.

There is no reason why a libertarian should accept such counterexamples as examples of genuine FW.

Jones is in a voting booth deliberating whether to vote for Bush or Kerry. Unbeknownst to Jones, a neurosurgeon, Black, has implanted
a mechanism in Jones's brain that allows Black to monitor Jones's neural states and alter them if need be. Black is a diehard
Democrat, and should Black detect neural activity indicating that a choice for Bush is forthcoming, Black is prepared to activate his
mechanism to ensure that Jones instead votes for Kerry. As a matter of fact, Jones chooses on his own to vote for Kerry, so Black
never intervenes.Now the reason I posted this example is because Jones is evidently responsible for the decision to vote for Kerry – though Black
COULD have intervened and manipulated Jones, he did not have to, since Jones voted for Kerry of his own will. But in fact, unknown to
Jones, there is no way that he could NOT have voted for Kerry (because Black would have not allowed him to), thus Jones could not
have done otherwise

UNDER CIRCUMSTANCES WHERE HAD ALREADY MADE HIS MADE UP TO VOTE FOR KERRY.

– there were no alternate possibilities open to him (though he did not know that). Jones voted for Kerry thinking
to himself “I would still vote for Kerry, even if I could do otherwise”. Jones was responsible for that vote – even though he had
(unbeknownst to him) no choice.

He was reponsible for it, and it was *his* choice because it was *his* desire, it was
*his* desire, because he could have desired something else.

Frankfurt counterexamples only reinforce the point, which has already been incorporated into the Darwinian theory,
that what is important is the "run up" to the decision.

The point of these examples is that they show that responsibilty for an action does NOT entail "could have done otherwise",

At what point in time ? Could-have-wished otherwise is as important as ever.

it
entails only "I would not have done otherwise, even if I could have done otherwise". If we know exactly what is going on behind the
scenes, then we also know whether the agent in question acted of her own will, or whether she was forced to act by some external
source (either via hypnosis or neural implants or whatever). But the same examples apply whether one believes in free will or not –
even if free will is “true”, we can still play out these kinds of examples – and these examples simply show that it may be the case
in certain situations that we simply do not know if people are acting according to their will, or that they are being manipulated -
but in either case responsibility entails only that the agent in question did what it did according to its will, responsibility does
not entail "could have done otherwise".

If responsibility cannot answer the "Only Some Entities are Credited with Volition", problem without CHDO, CHDO is still necessary.
You seem very sure that FW is not a mixture, How can you be so sure ?
If you wish to define free will as a mixture of determinism and indeterminism, and indistinguishable from such a mixture, then I have
no problem with that – because there is nothing in such a definition which is inconsistent with either determinism or indeterminism
But imho that is not what “free will” means to most libertarians.

I start my argument with a defintion of FW, and my conclusion is compatible with it.

It is important to distinguish between explanation and explanandum. Libertarian
explanations are often supernatural -- we naturalist libertarians are a minority --
and people confusedly think that means the explanandum of FW is supernatural by definition.

At one time, every mental faculty was given a supernatural explanation. As
neurology, computer science, etc, have progressed, that is no longer the case.

It is quite odd that so many people in the present day remain insistent that FW is superrnatural or nothing.

By performing a conceptual analysis of FW.

OK. Has this been done?
By me, yes. My critics don't seem to have an alternative analysis.
OK, now over to you. How would you distinguish between genuine free will on the one hand, and a simple but arbitrary mixture of
determinism and arbitrariness (what I claim is the output of your Darwinian model) on the other?

"Arbitrary" is a straw-man. I go to some lengths to explain how they must be combined.(e.g.: "That does not mean that I think the computer I am using to write this sentence has free will; I see free will as an integral part of human mentality (not as something metahphysically Basic, or Separable), so I would not consider a machine to posess free will unless it could reproduce other aspects of human mentality; and some of the other aspects, such as phenomenal consciousness, pose more of a problem").
 
  • #30
MF, you keep saying things like:

The outcome of your model is either deterministic (it is in control) or it is random (it is not in control . . .

There is no combination of parameters in your model which results in free will - one either gets determinism, arbitrariness, or an unknown mixture of the two.
I fail to see this argument. A 'decision' is rarely, if ever, a single event. We might start weighing choices and act on one, but that choice (generally) is being constantly evaluated, and as newer information becomes available, that information can be acted upon also. Saying we are not in control because of a highly complex, yet random element which is controlled by other decision making elements is rather extreme. I don't see any reason to suggest a random component results in arbitrary or uncontrolled actions.
 
  • #31
moving finger said:
"...what really matters for responsibility is whether we would have done otherwise, if we could have done otherwise.

I agree with that statement.
What I find notable about that statement is the use of the term "if".

In choice decision, it is not enough for a potential alternate choice to be existant. Rather, that alternate choice must also be reasonably viable given the specific circumstances, regardless of its existence within the local frame of reference.
As such, "if we could have done otherwise" is dependent not on the "otherwise", rather whether the "if" portends a reasonably viable circumstantial potential.
 
  • #32
pallidin said:
I agree with that statement.
What I find notable about that statement is the use of the term "if".

In choice decision, it is not enough for a potential alternate choice to be existant. Rather, that alternate choice must also be reasonably viable given the specific circumstances, regardless of its existence within the local frame of reference.
As such, "if we could have done otherwise" is dependent not on the "otherwise", rather whether the "if" portends a reasonably viable circumstantial potential.
I am arguing that it is not necessary for an alternate possibility to exist in order to hold an agent responsible for its action. Check the Frankfurt-style case :

Jones is in a voting booth deliberating whether to vote for Bush or Kerry. Unbeknownst to Jones, a neurosurgeon, Black, has implanted a mechanism in Jones's brain that allows Black to monitor Jones's neural states and alter them if need be. Black is a diehard Democrat, and should Black detect neural activity indicating that a choice for Bush is forthcoming, Black is prepared to activate his mechanism to ensure that Jones instead votes for Kerry. As a matter of fact, Jones chooses on his own to vote for Kerry, so Black never intervenes.

Is Jones responsible for the fact that he voted for Kerry?
Could Jones have not voted for Kerry?

Best Regards
 
  • #33
"I am arguing that it is not necessary for an alternate possibility to exist in order to hold an agent responsible for its action..."

In a court of law(and common sense),that notion is impossible.
For a defendant to be held accountable for actions non-existant in viable choice is ludicrous at best.

The example you gave was of an extreme nature; and clearly holds the distinction of subversion, which is illegal.
 
  • #34
pallidin said:
"I am arguing that it is not necessary for an alternate possibility to exist in order to hold an agent responsible for its action..."

In a court of law(and common sense),that notion is impossible.
For a defendant to be held accountable for actions non-existant in viable choice is ludicrous at best.

The example you gave was of an extreme nature; and clearly holds the distinction of subversion, which is illegal.
Of course the example was of an extreme nature.

Do you deny that Jones is responsible in the Frankfurt example that I gave?

"Common sense" is based on naive intuitive ideas about how the world works - it is not necessarily a reliable guide to logic - as the Frankfurt example demonstrates.

The point is that the example shows the logical possibility that an act need NOT entail alternate possibilities in order to be a responsible act. That point is logically correct.

Best Regards
 
  • #35
"common sense" is the only means of analysiing the genuine
*meaning* of a word -- arguing with artificial defintions is pointless.
You might as well say only red-haired people have FW.
 
  • #36
Hey... I have red hair... no really, I do... No things are random... and yet all things are random... -->happen is because it must<--.:biggrin:

So who's really in control? Not the human... ever... Or does he just think he is... funny concept... this free will... free will to be forced to make decisions because time must go forward... and because we are not solitary entities... are we really in control of us? Or is it the environment around us making us make these decisions... hehe. Life is a duality... don't always focus on one perception or you will find yourself going in circles for a lifetime. When time is stopped and I am placed in complete and utter solitary confinement to nothingness but myself... just MAYBE... just MAYBE... then I'll believe in one's own free will... See, not even red haired people believe they have free will... :P
 
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  • #37
Tournesol said:
"common sense" is the only means of analysiing the genuine
*meaning* of a word -- arguing with artificial defintions is pointless.
You might as well say only red-haired people have FW.
What artificial definition are you referring to?

I've noticed that people who are beaten by logic often resort to saying that argument is pointless - it's the only refuge for free will left.

Best Regards
 
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  • #38
Tournesol said:
UNDER CIRCUMSTANCES WHERE HAD ALREADY MADE HIS MADE UP TO VOTE FOR KERRY.
Not necessarly. Jones may not have “made his mind up” until the very last moment. He may have been undecided up until the moment when he was to put his mark on the ballot paper.

It doesn't matter at what point in time Jones "makes up his mind" - all that matters is that he decides one way or the other - either he decides to vote for Kerry of his own free will, in which case Black does not intervene and Jones is clearly responsible for his act of voting, or he decides to vote for Bush, in which case Black does intervene and Jones is then clearly not responsible for his act of voting. Either way, he votes for Kerry, so the outcome is determined. But in the case where he willingly votes for Kerry he is responsible even though he could not have done otherwise.

Tournesol said:
He was reponsible for it, and it was *his* choice because it was *his* desire, it was *his* desire, because he could have desired something else.
If he desires to vote for Kerry, why is it suddenly *not* his desire if Black is waiting in the background to force him to vote for Kerry if he would decide not to vote for Kerry. Don't forget, if he decides to vote for Kerry of his own free will then Black does not intervene - therefore Jones's choice is exactly as "free" as if Black were not there.

Tournesol said:
Frankfurt counterexamples only reinforce the point, which has already been incorporated into the Darwinian theory, that what is important is the "run up" to the decision.
I agree completely, and I agree that the Darwinian model may indeed be a good model of parts of how our brains work. But I don’t agree that the Darwinian model produces anything except for a mixture of determinisdm and indeterminism – it certainly does not produce anything that most libertarians would call free will.

Tournesol said:
At what point in time ? Could-have-wished otherwise is as important as ever.
The point in time is irrelevant - the only relevant issue is the outcome. Jones can wish or desire or choose whatever he wants - the only important issue as far as responsibility is concerned is his voluntary act. If it appears to Black that the results of Jones' deliberations (wishing, wanting, desiring etc) is going to end up in a vote for Kerry, then Black does nothing and Jones acts voluntarily and is responsible for his act of voting for Kerry. If however it appears to Black that the results of Jones' deliberations (wishing, wanting, desiring etc) is going to end up in a vote for Bush, then Black intervenes and forces him to vote for Kerry, and in that case Jones is not responsible for his act of voting for Kerry.

In the case where Jones chooses to vote for Kerry of his own will then he is responsible for his act, but he could not have done otherwise - no matter what he would have done, he would end up voting for Kerry.

Hence responsibility does not entail alternate possibilities - there is nothing wrong with the logic, Tournesol. I know you don't like it, but if you cannot show any flaw in the logic then all you have left is irrational denial.

Tournesol said:
If responsibility cannot answer the "Only Some Entities are Credited with Volition", problem without CHDO, CHDO is still necessary.
What needs to be done to answer this is to agree the necessary conditions for responsibility.

What is wrong or missing, do you think, from the following suggested necessary conditions :

1) I did X
2) I wanted to do X
3) I understand the consequences of doing X and of not doing X, and I understand right and wrong.

If an entity meets all 3 of the above conditions, why would we say that entity is not responsible for the act of doing X?

Tournesol said:
I start my argument with a defintion of FW, and my conclusion is compatible with it.
Sorry, which particular argument are you referring to now? (Tournesol, in all honesty I do find it difficult sometimes to understand what you mean in some of your posts, because you make references to things that you obviously understand, but that the rest of us maybe have to guess at)

Tournesol said:
It is important to distinguish between explanation and explanandum. Libertarian explanations are often supernatural -- we naturalist libertarians are a minority -- and people confusedly think that means the explanandum of FW is supernatural by definition.
I understand, and I agree. I reject the suprenatural explanation of FW simply because it is not an explanation – it’s an avoidance of explanation. The problem with trying to explain free will without resorting to mysticism is that imho it just cannot be done (or at best one ends up with something that is just a mixture of determinism and indeterminism).

Tournesol said:
At one time, every mental faculty was given a supernatural explanation. As neurology, computer science, etc, have progressed, that is no longer the case.
Agreed. But it does not follow from this that everything with a supernatural explanation will one day also be explained naturalistically.

Tournesol said:
It is quite odd that so many people in the present day remain insistent that FW is superrnatural or nothing.
Yes, I can see that it seems odd to you. But it seems very straightforward to me, because I believe what we like to call free will is simply a mixture of determinism and indeterminability.

Tournesol said:
By me, yes. My critics don't seem to have an alternative analysis.
OK, is this the analysis in the following paper?

http://www.geocities.com/peterdjones/det_darwin.html#darwin_vs_buridan

Tournesol said:
"Arbitrary" is a straw-man. I go to some lengths to explain how they must be combined.

(e.g.: "That does not mean that I think the computer I am using to write this sentence has free will; I see free will as an integral part of human mentality (not as something metahphysically Basic, or Separable), so I would not consider a machine to posess free will unless it could reproduce other aspects of human mentality; and some of the other aspects, such as phenomenal consciousness, pose more of a problem").
But this does not tell us HOW you would distinguish, in the output from your Darwinian model, between genuine free will on the one hand, and a simple indeterminable mixture of determinism and indeterminability on the other.

Best Regards
 
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  • #39
Q_Goest said:
A 'decision' is rarely, if ever, a single event. We might start weighing choices and act on one, but that choice (generally) is being constantly evaluated, and as newer information becomes available, that information can be acted upon also.
I agree with all of the above.

Q_Goest said:
Saying we are not in control because of a highly complex, yet random element which is controlled by other decision making elements is rather extreme.
Having thought further about this I agree that the word “control” is probably the wrong word to use here. Control can mean “having the power to direct or determine”, but it can also mean “exercising restraint”. In the sense that the Darwinian model can be configured to provide random outputs within a certain defined range, it could be said to exercise restraint even when it is not deterministic.

My real concern about suggesting the Darwinian model as an accurate model of free will is based on the fact that I see no way to distinguish, in the output of the model, between a free will decision on the one hand, and a decision that is either deterministic, indeterminable, or an indeterminable mixture of the two, on the other hand.

Tournesol is suggesting that true indeterminism is an essential component of the model. But I could build a “model of the model” which operates completely deterministically, using a deterministic RNG in place of the original model's indeterministic RNG, which in principle would behave exactly the same way as the original model – ie its behaviour would be indistinguishable from the original model. In what sense can we say that the original model is acting with free will, but the deterministic "model of the model" is not, if their behaviour is indistinguishable?

I'll try to explain in more detail in my next post

Best Regards
 
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  • #40
It doesn't matter at what point in time Jones "makes up his mind" - all that matters is that he decides one way or the other - either he decides to vote for Kerry of his own free will, in which case Black does not intervene and Jones is clearly responsible for his act of voting, or he decides to vote for Bush, in which case Black does intervene and Jones is then clearly not responsible for his act of voting. Either way, he votes for Kerry, so the outcome is determined. But in the case where he willingly votes for Kerry he is responsible even though he could not have done otherwise.

He could have done otherwise up to a point: something
has has to trigger Black's mechanism.
If he desires to vote for Kerry, why is it suddenly *not* his desire if Black is waiting in the background to force him to vote for Kerry if he would decide not to vote for Kerry.

It *is* his desire to vote for Kerry. And he *can* do otherwise -- or at least, wish otherwise. Becasue something
has has to trigger Black's mechanism.

Don't forget, if he decides to vote for Kerry of his own free will then Black does not intervene - therefore Jones's choice is exactly as "free" as if Black were not there.
I agree completely, and I agree that the Darwinian model may indeed be a good model of parts of how our brains work. But I don’t agree that the Darwinian model produces anything except for a mixture of determinisdm and indeterminism – it certainly does not produce anything that most libertarians would call free will.

And as for those idiot metallurgists, thinking steel is a mixtureof iron and carbon...
At what point in time ? Could-have-wished otherwise is as important as ever.
The point in time is irrelevant - the only relevant issue is the outcome.
says who ?

Jones can wish or desire or choose whatever he wants - the only important issue as far as responsibility is concerned is his voluntary act.

Wich is voluntary because he could have *wished* differently, even if he could not
have acted don't the wish.

In the case where Jones chooses to vote for Kerry of his own will then he is responsible for his act, but he could not have done otherwise - no matter what he would have done, he would end up voting for Kerry.

He could have wised otherwise, since somehting has to trigger the mechanism.

In the first version of the story, Black can prevent a choice being carried through, but can't prevent it entirely. Jones has lost the power to "do" in the sense of deciding to vote Bush, and then doing so, but not in the sense of having the first inkling of a decision ot vote Bush. He has not completely lost his CHDO. He still has free will, and still has CHDO.

Maybe Black could perform a more radical operation and remove even the remotest possiblity that Jones would vote for Bush (so there is now no need for a mechanism, and nothing would ever trigger it anyway). But after such surgery, woudl we then say Jones voted freely for Kerry ? Surely the whole point of the surgery is to ensure that he cannot. So, in this case, he has neither free will nor CHDO.

So in neither scenario does Jones have free will without having CHDO.
Hence responsibility does not entail alternate possibilities - there is nothing wrong with the logic, Tournesol. I know you don't like it, but if you cannot show any flaw in the logic then all you have left is irrational denial.

I have shown the flaw. Responsibility lies with freely-chose intentions.
If responsibility cannot answer the "Only Some Entities are Credited with Volition", problem without CHDO, CHDO is still necessary.
What needs to be done to answer this is to agree the necessary conditions for responsibility.

What is wrong or missing, do you think, from the following suggested necessary conditions :

1) I did X
2) I wanted to do X
3) I understand the consequences of doing X and of not doing X, and I understand right and wrong.

If an entity meets all 3 of the above conditions, why would we say that entity is not responsible for the act of doing X

It doesn't answer counterexamples about hypnotically-implanted suggestions, compulsions,etc.

http://www.geocities.com/peterdjones/det_darwin.html#compatibilism
I start my argument with a defintion of FW, and my conclusion is compatible with it.
Sorry, which particular argument are you referring to now? (Tournesol, in all honesty I do find it difficult sometimes to understand what you mean in some of your posts, because you make references to things that you obviously understand, but that the rest of us maybe have to guess at)

I am always referring to the "locus claissicus"http://www.geocities.com/peterdjones/det_darwin.html
It is important to distinguish between explanation and explanandum. Libertarian explanations are often supernatural -- we naturalist libertarians are a minority -- and people confusedly think that means the explanandum of FW is supernatural by definition.

I understand, and I agree. I reject the suprenatural explanation of FW simply because it is not an explanation – it’s an avoidance of explanation. The problem with trying to explain free will without resorting to mysticism is that imho it just cannot be done (or at best one ends up with something that is just a mixture of determinism and indeterminism).

You have never given a reason -- except the supertnaturalsim that you don't acctually believe in
-- for thinking FW could not possibly be a mixture. So it is in fact your objection which is incoherent.

At one time, every mental faculty was given a supernatural explanation. As neurology, computer science, etc, have progressed, that is no longer the case.
Agreed. But it does not follow from this that everything with a supernatural explanation will one day also be explained naturalistically.

It doesn't follow from that you have to stick like glue to pre-scientific ideas.

It is quite odd that so many people in the present day remain insistent that FW is superrnatural or nothing.
Yes, I can see that it seems odd to you. But it seems very straightforward to me, because I believe what we like to call free will is simply a mixture of determinism and indeterminability.

So do I!

What *are* you saying ?

Being a mixture of iron and carbon doesn't stop steel being steel!

By me, yes. My critics don't seem to have an alternative analysis.
OK, is this the analysis in the following paper?
http://www.geocities.com/peterdjones...win_vs_buridan

As ever.
But this does not tell us HOW you would distinguish, in the output from your Darwinian model, between genuine free will on the one hand, and a simple indeterminable mixture of determinism and indeterminability on the other.
AAAAAAAAGGGGGHHHHH!

NO! of course it doesn't! FREE WILL JUST ***IS*** A MIXTURE OF THE TWO!
 
  • #41
moving finger said:
If he desires to vote for Kerry, why is it suddenly *not* his desire if Black is waiting in the background to force him to vote for Kerry if he would decide not to vote for Kerry.
Tournesol said:
It *is* his desire to vote for Kerry. And he *can* do otherwise -- or at least, wish otherwise. Becasue something has has to trigger Black's mechanism.
You have put your finger right on the button. We are now moving from the original libertarian premise of “could have done otherwise” to a new premise of “could have wished otherwise”. You obviously concede from this move that it might be the case that Black could ensure that Jones could NOT do otherwise (“do” in the sense of “act”), and now you wish to push the point of interest back before the moment of action, to the moment of wishing. But Black can move his neural intervention back too, so that he detects the neural precursors (the antecedent mental states) to the “wish”, and by doing so he can ensure that Jones either “wishes” to vote for Kerry of his own accord (of his own free will) or (if Black detects neural activity which suggests Jones may instead wish to vote for Bush) then Black intervenes and forces a “wish” to vote for Kerry. In this case, not only could Jones not have “done” otherwise, he also could not have “wished” otherwise.

I don’t need to explain that this procedure can be placed as far back in the “decision process” as we like. The argument you are using here is basically the “flicker of freedom” argument, which ends up pushing the flicker back so far down the causal chain that it eventually extinguishes itself in randomness. For a more detailed examination, see Diana Hsieh, in Defending Alternate Possibilities, here :

http://www.dianahsieh.com/docs/dap.pdf

If we apply Black’s device to your Darwinian model, and push it as far back as we can, then Black eventually ends up monitoring the output of the RIG – and then sending countermanding instructions to the SIS if he decides to intervene. In your model, it is the RIG, and not the SIS, which is effectively “making the decisions” for Jones – and these RIG decisions are of course completely arbitrary (they have to be, to fulfill the arbitrary libertarian requirement of alternate possibilities)….. that’s ultimately where your so-called “flicker of freedom” comes from.

Tournesol said:
And as for those idiot metallurgists, thinking steel is a mixtureof iron and carbon...
Any metallurgist who does think that steel is “simply” a mixture of iron and carbon is indeed an idiot – steel is a very particular kind of mixture, put together in a particular way – “any old mixture” of iron and carbon will not necessarily give you steel. And “any old mixture” of determinism and indeterminism will not necessarily give you ultimate responsibility and free will. The point is that you cannot explain just why one particular mixture should give ultimate responsibility and another one not.

moving finger said:
The point in time is irrelevant - the only relevant issue is the outcome.
Tournesol said:
says who ?
says “could have done otherwise”. There is no temporal constraint in the phrase.
Of course if you now wish to change that requirement to “could have wished otherwise” or “could have willed otherwise” or “could have thought otherwise” then that’s fine – but shifting the goalposts doesn’t change the basic argument (as shown above).

moving finger said:
Jones can wish or desire or choose whatever he wants - the only important issue as far as responsibility is concerned is his voluntary act.
Tournesol said:
Wich is voluntary because he could have *wished* differently, even if he could not have acted don't the wish.
Then why do the libertarians insist that free will entails “could have done otherwise”? If only the wish, and not the act, is important, it follows that what he could have “done” is irrelevant to whether he has free will or not.

Tournesol said:
I have shown the flaw. Responsibility lies with freely-chose intentions.
And I have shown the flaw in your “flicker of freedom” argument. Black’s intervention can be moved back to the neural states antecedent to the moment of Jones forming his conscious choice, so that Jones’ conscious choice is always to vote for Kerry (he cannot choose otherwise), but in one case Black does not intervene (Jones chooses freely) and in the other (when he sees that Jones neural states indicate that he will form a choice to vote for Bush) he does intervene (Jones does not choose freely). See Diana Hsieh for more detail on the argument against the “flicker of freedom” answer to Frankfurt cases.

moving finger said:
What is wrong or missing, do you think, from the following suggested necessary conditions :

1) I did X
2) I wanted to do X
3) I understand the consequences of doing X and of not doing X, and I understand right and wrong.

If an entity meets all 3 of the above conditions, why would we say that entity is not responsible for the act of doing X
Tournesol said:
It doesn't answer counterexamples about hypnotically-implanted suggestions, compulsions,etc.
This is why my original (2) was :

2a) I would have done X, even if I could have done otherwise

Which would answer the hypnosis and compulsion (and Frankfurt) cases. Perhaps you prefer condition 2a to condition 2?

Does a person under hypnosis “want” to do X? How could we tell?

In what sense is a person with a compulsion not responsible for what he does, as long as he does it willingly (ie he wants to do it) and he understands the consequences of what he does?

what additional necessary conditions for responsibility would you add, or what would you change, to answer the counterexamples you have suggested? (understanding that we cannot add “free will” or “ultimate responsibility” as conditions, because this simply results in a tautology, and we cannot add “could have xxxxx otherwise”, where xxxxx stands for done/wished/willed/chosen etc because the Frankfurt cases show that this is not a necessary condition for responsibility)

Tournesol said:
You have never given a reason -- except the supertnaturalsim that you don't acctually believe in -- for thinking FW could not possibly be a mixture. So it is in fact your objection which is incoherent.
The main reason is because nobody, including yourself, has come up with a plausible and coherent mechanism which shows how free will works. The best anyone can do is a form of hand-waving with a conclusion “well it looks like it could make reasonable and unpredictable decisions, so I guess it has free will”.

Free will (of the libertarian kind) entails ultimate responsibility (UR). To have Free Will, an agent must be ultimately responsible for its actions. The problem we face is in defining exactly, in a coherent and rational fashion, just what is meant by UR. Most libertarian accounts of Free Will gloss over the interpretation of UR and do not enter into detailed examination of the coherency of the concept. A typical example :

“Freedom is not mere caprice, nor does it lie in being the puppet of circumstances, it is self-determination, a gradual evolution of selfhood”

This kind of freedom definitely sounds like something we would all like to have. But is it a coherent notion, or is it just a warm and fuzzy feeling? If incoherent, then the notion is simply an idle fantasy. Self-determination is another libertarian way of saying that to be free we must be ultimately responsible for what we do. The tricky thing with UR is that to be ultimately responsible for what you do, you must also be ultimately responsible for the way you are (because the way you are, in absence of mere caprice, determines what you do). But to be ultimately responsible for the way you are, you would have to have intentionally brought it about that you are the way you are. Intentionality is a fundamental aspect of UR (if what we do is not what we intend to do, how can we be held ultimately responsible for what we do?). But to intentionally bring about a certain state N, you must have had a prior state N-1 which led to the intentional development of your state N (if N is an arbitrary state in the sense that you had no state prior to N which intentionally brought about state N, then you can hardly be responsible for state N, can you?). But this also means that state N-1 must have been brought about intentionally in a similar fashion, which means there must have been some prior intentional state N-2…… and so on ad infinitum. UR thus entails an infinite regress of intentional states. The only escape from such regress is to postulate either some arbitrary intentional starting state, or that the self is somehow magically and mystically able to pull itself up by its own bootstraps, the original causa sui (cause of itself). Your Darwinian model vacillates between the two.

As Nietzsche observed in 1886 (in Beyond Good and Evil) :

The causa sui is the best self-contradiction that has been conceived so far, it is a sort of rape and perversion of logic. But the extravagant pride of man has managed to entangle itself profoundly and frightfully with just this nonsense. The desire for ‘freedom of the will’ in the superlative metaphysical sense, which still holds sway, unfortunately, in the minds of the half-educated; the desire to bear the entire and ultimate responsibility for one’s actions oneself, and to absolve God, the world, ancestors, chance and society involves nothing less than to be precisely this causa sui and, with more than Baron Munchhausen’s audacity, to pull oneself up into existence by the hair, out of the swamps of nothingness……

I feel that Nietzsche is too generous to causa sui in claiming that it must pull itself up by its hair. If the causa sui had any hair then it is just conceivable that it could accomplish such a feat. But its worse than that, because UR entails that there is no hair to start with – there is absolutely no intentional antecedent state which this causa sui can grasp a hold of in order to pull itself into existence. If the self is to be truly UR, it must literally create itself from nothingness. It cannot pull itself up by its own bootstraps, because by definition it has no bootstraps before it pulls itself up.

Most libertarians avoid the problem of explaining how UR can be coherent by avoiding a detailed definition of UR altogether. UR is usually simply stated as an intuitively self-evident concept which needs no further explanation or rationalisation.

moving finger said:
But it does not follow from this that everything with a supernatural explanation will one day also be explained naturalistically.
Tournesol said:
It doesn't follow from that you have to stick like glue to pre-scientific ideas.
I would say the notion that free will actually exists (as opposed to being an illusion) is a pre-scientific idea.

Tournesol said:
So do I!
No you don’t. You think free will actually exists, and is a particular (not just any old) mixture of indeterminism (not indeterminability) and determinism. But you cannot show how this belief works in practice.

Tournesol said:
What *are* you saying ?
I am saying that what we “like” to call free will is not free will in the libertarian sense, it is simply a mixture of determinism and indeterminability. We have the illusion that we act freely simply because we do not have access to the detailed reasons underlying our decisions and actions, and this illusion is what we call “free will”. But some of us (libertarians) believe that the illusion is not an illusion, that we are indeed ultimately responsible for our actions.

Tournesol said:
Being a mixture of iron and carbon doesn't stop steel being steel!
Simply “being a mixture of iron and carbon” is not sufficient for “being steel”!

Tournesol said:
My critics don't seem to have an alternative analysis.
The “alternative analysis” is the free will skeptic or the compatibilist analysis – both camps deny the coherency of libertarian free will. To these camps, free will and ultimate responsibility of the libertarian kind are simply the product of illusions and wishful thinking in the minds of libertarians. The free will skeptic or the compatibilist analysis is the only analysis which is complete, coherent and rational.

moving finger said:
But this does not tell us HOW you would distinguish, in the output from your Darwinian model, between genuine free will on the one hand, and a simple indeterminable mixture of determinism and indeterminability on the other.
Tournesol said:
NO! of course it doesn't! FREE WILL JUST ***IS*** A MIXTURE OF THE TWO!
Like steel just ***IS*** a mixture of iron and carbon? I don’t think so! There is a difference between steel and any old mixture of iron and carbon – but you seem to be saying that just any mixture of determinism and indeterminism will result in free will?

I can define the necessary and sufficient conditions for “steel”, and I can apply those conditions to objectively distinguish between a sample of steel and a simple mixture of carbon and iron. If you want anyone to take your claims about the Darwinian model seriously, you need to do the same for ultimate responsibility. Don’t just claim your model possesses ultimate responsibility, give us some rational reasons for believing that it does.

Again, you do not tell us how you would distinguish between genuine free will on the one hand, and a simple indeterminable mixture of determinism and indeterminability on the other. Saying that it “behaves indeterminably” or that it “behaves rationally” is not enough – because (a) a simple machine can behave both indeterminably and rationally, but it does not necessarily possesses free will, and (b) UR is a necessary condition of free will – how would you go about showing that your model possesses UR?

Best Regards
 
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