Can I Simplify This Diff EQ by Using Laplace Transform and Partial Fractions?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around simplifying a differential equation using the Laplace transform and partial fraction decomposition. The original poster is attempting to express a specific fraction in terms of simpler components to facilitate solving the differential equation.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster describes their process of applying partial fractions and setting specific values for s to find coefficients. Some participants suggest additional methods for determining the constants involved, including evaluating at complex values.

Discussion Status

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of correctly equating coefficients and suggest alternative methods for simplifying the expression. There is an acknowledgment of a mistake in the original poster's equation, which may affect the discussion.

kdinser
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This is actually part of a larger problem of solving a diff EQ by use of a laplce transform, but it's the partial fraction part that I'm stuck on.

[tex]\frac{1}{s^2(s^2+w^2)} = \frac{A}{s}+\frac{B}{s^2}+\frac{C*s+D}{s^2+w^2}[/tex]

Good so far?

If I then multiply through by the common denominator I get

EQ.2[tex]1 = A*s(s^2+w^2) + B(s^2+w^2) + s^2(C*s+D)[/tex]

So then I set s=0

[tex]1=B*w^2 \longrightarrow B=1/w^2[/tex]

Then using the quadratic equation, I find that the roots of s^2+w^2 are +/- jw

letting s=jw I end up with

[tex]1 = -jC*w^3 - Dw^2[/tex]

this is where I get stuck, I'm not sure how to find C and D at this point.

Note: I just noticed a mistake in EQ.2,
 
Last edited:
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you can equate the various bits, ie the coefficients of the quadratic linear and constant terms. you cut out a bit of that with s=0 which is a good trick but u need the other way to get all the constants (if only in terms of w)

ie [tex]{s^2}(C*s + D) = 0[/tex]

i think
 
Thanks for the reply, but I'm not really sure what you are saying.
 
You can get two equations for [itex]C[/itex] and [itex]D[/itex] by letting [itex]s=\pm i\omega[/itex]. You can then solve for [itex]C[/itex] and [itex]D[/itex].

By the way if you want to know a quick way to do this you can say the following:

[tex] \frac{1}{xy} = \frac{1}{x-y}\left\{\frac{1}{y}-\frac{1}{x}\right\}<br /> [/itex]<br /> <br /> So if I choose [itex]x=s^2+\omega^2[/itex], and [itex]y=s^2[/itex] then your initial fraction can be cast directly into the form on the RHS of your equation.[/tex]
 
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