Can subatomic particles be considered monopoles?

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The discussion centers on the classification of subatomic particles, specifically whether protons and electrons can be considered monopoles. It is established that protons are not fundamental particles but are composed of three quarks: two up quarks and one down quark, with respective charges of +2/3 and -1/3. Additionally, the free electron exhibits a spherically symmetric charge distribution, disqualifying it as a magnetic monopole. The consensus emphasizes the importance of grounding conjectures in established particle physics knowledge.

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nst.john
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For a while I've been thinking "what is charge?"and I've looked in many sites and did not find much but me and another person concluded that maybe subatomic particles (protons and electron)act as single moving north or south poles. I might be completely wrong I'm new at physics but it was just an idea.
 
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I might suggest that prior to starting your conjectures, you read up on some of the basics about particle physics. That will place you on a better track. You will quickly find that speculation is unnecessary in areas in which thousands of professional physicists have already walked. You and I get to step on the backs of these greats.

In the case you mention: protons are not fundamental particles. They are in fact composed of 3 quarks: 2 ups and a down. Ups have charge of 2/3, and a Down has a charge of -1/3. See:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proton

In addition, free electron charge is spherically symmetric. Therefore it cannot be a monopole.
 
Electrons can be considered electric monopoles for every theoretical consideration I've seen.

We haven't seen a natural magnetic monopole.
 

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