Can the normal force between a blocks accelerating together be zero?

Click For Summary
The discussion revolves around the forces acting on three blocks accelerating together on a frictionless surface. Each block experiences gravitational force downward and normal force upward, which balance out vertically. Horizontally, the applied force on the first block and the normal forces between the blocks are analyzed, leading to confusion about whether the normal force between blocks can be zero. Participants suggest recalculating the acceleration of the blocks using F = m*a and clarify that the normal forces should not equal zero but rather be equal and opposite. The conversation emphasizes the importance of correctly applying Newton's laws to understand the forces involved.
mistymoon_38
Messages
18
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


Three rectangular blocks of equal mass m slide to the right along a frictionless horizontal surface accelerated by a force F applied to the left side of the left-most block. (a) Draw a free-body diagram for each block. (b) Determine the magnitudes and directions of all of the forces on each block in terms of m, F and/or g.


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


As for vertical forces, each block has the force of gravity downwards and the normal force from the surface pointing upwards, which sum to 0. That part is fine.

As for the horizontal forces, on block 1 I have the applied force to the left, and the normal for from block 2 to the right. For block 2 I have the normal force from block 1 to the right and the normal force from block 3 to the left. And then for block 3 there I have the normal force from block 2 to the right. Using Newton's Law of equal and opp. pairs, I know that the normal force of 2 on 1=-(force on 1 on 2) and normal forces of 2 on 3=-(force 3 on 2).

By equating these forces and using Newton's Law, I get that the force of 2 on 3 is just F (applied force) and 3 on 2 is -F. And 2 on 1/1 on 2 is zero. Is that possible? Am i missing something?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
mistymoon_38 said:
By equating these forces and using Newton's Law, I get that the force of 2 on 3 is just F (applied force) and 3 on 2 is -F. And 2 on 1/1 on 2 is zero. Is that possible? Am i missing something?

you made a mistake somewhere doing this.

The easiest way to do it is to start by calculating the acceleration of all the blocks by using F = m*a for all of them together
 
Hi mistymoon_38! :smile:

Hint: Call the acceleration A.

So the net force on the three blocks as a whole is F = 3mA.

Then what is the net force on the first block, to produce an acceleration of A? :smile:
 
Hey! We have the same problem for my Physics Recitation.

I disagree with your block 1 which might lead to your error. I said that The Force Applied is going to the right and The Force (2 on 1) is going to the left.

This means that F(1 on 2) = -F(2 on 1) so it should not equal zero but be the same.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

Similar threads

Replies
7
Views
1K
Replies
2
Views
1K
Replies
13
Views
3K
Replies
31
Views
1K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K
Replies
3
Views
501
Replies
4
Views
796
Replies
61
Views
3K
  • · Replies 37 ·
2
Replies
37
Views
2K