Karlisbad
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Let be the integral equation:
g(s)g(p)g(u)= \int_{0}^{\infty}dx\int_{0}^{\infty}dy\int_{0}^{\infty}dzK(sx)K(py)K(uz)f(x,y,z) <br /> <br />
then my question is if we could "seek" for a solution in the form:
f(x,y,z)=A(x)A(y)A(z) where the function A satsify (for x y and z) the integral equation:
g(s)=\int_{0}^{\infty}dxK(xs)A(x) 8and the same for the other)
¿is this approach good?
g(s)g(p)g(u)= \int_{0}^{\infty}dx\int_{0}^{\infty}dy\int_{0}^{\infty}dzK(sx)K(py)K(uz)f(x,y,z) <br /> <br />
then my question is if we could "seek" for a solution in the form:
f(x,y,z)=A(x)A(y)A(z) where the function A satsify (for x y and z) the integral equation:
g(s)=\int_{0}^{\infty}dxK(xs)A(x) 8and the same for the other)
¿is this approach good?