Can Two Different Random Variables Have the Same Distribution?

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The discussion centers on whether two different random variables, X and Y, can have the same distribution as X and X+Y. Participants explore the conditions under which this might be true and consider examples, including cases where X is a constant or follows a Bernoulli distribution. One participant suggests that if X is a Bernoulli random variable, then a modified variable Z can be defined such that X and Z are equal in distribution. The conversation highlights the importance of understanding the characteristics of random variables and their distributions. Ultimately, the conclusion is that under certain conditions, it is indeed possible for X and X+Y to have the same distribution.
wuid
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Hello ,

frustrated with my lecturer assignments , i need your help with this :

if X,Y and are two different random variable , is it possible that X,X+Y have equally distributed.

if it can be give an example , if not prove it.

thanks,
 
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wuid said:
Hello ,

frustrated with my lecturer assignments , i need your help with this :

if X,Y and are two different random variable , is it possible that X,X+Y have equally distributed.

if it can be give an example , if not prove it.

thanks,

Show your work---those are the Forum rules.

RGV
 
sorry but i don't have any ,
i don't remember that we learned who to prove equality in distribution.
all i thought of is that if i want to prove it right i have to prove that :
P(X\leqt)=P(X+Y\leqt) for all t,

maybe there other conditions that lead to equality in distribution, but i don't know them.

generally i think it is possible , so i am trying to think on distribution that will satisfy the answer
 
wuid said:
sorry but i don't have any ,
i don't remember that we learned who to prove equality in distribution.
all i thought of is that if i want to prove it right i have to prove that :
P(X\leqt)=P(X+Y\leqt) for all t,

maybe there other conditions that lead to equality in distribution, but i don't know them.

generally i think it is possible , so i am trying to think on distribution that will satisfy the answer

Equality in distribution is equivalent to equality of the characteristic functions,or Laplace transforms, or moment-generating functions, etc.

RGV
 
those subjects you mentioned aren't in the topics of the course , haven't learned them...

maybe a simple case that answer this problem ?
 
Are there any constraints at all on X and Y?

For example, if X is equal to some constant with probability 1, can you find a solution in that case?
 
jbunniii , if i understood you ,
if x is a constant with probability 1 and y is also the same constant with probability 1 then
x,x+y has the same distribution.

is it right ?

but the only constraint about x and y that they will be different
 
wuid said:
jbunniii , if i understood you ,
if x is a constant with probability 1 and y is also the same constant with probability 1 then
x,x+y has the same distribution.

is it right ?

Well, it depends on which constant you choose. If x and y are constants, and you need x = x + y, then what does this imply?
 
going back to the start , if X,Y are different random variable they can't be constants.
no ? i can't see where is the randomness of X or Y if the are constants.
 
  • #10
Certainly a random variable can be constant. Simply assign it a constant value with probability 1. Yes, it's a somewhat trivial example, but that's why I asked if there are any constraints on what kind of distribution can be assumed.

To find out if there is a less trivial example, consider this: if X and X + Y have the same distribution, then they must have the same moments. Try using this fact for the first and second moments, and see what you can conclude.
 
  • #11
if i take a fair coin where , X=1 for heads , X=0 for tail so P(X=1)=P(X=0)=0.5 ,
and i will define Y=1-X so P(Y=1)=P(Y=0)=0.5 ,
can i say that P(X=0)=P(X=1)=P(X+Y=1)=0.5 ?
this means X,X+Y have equal distribution and X,Y are not constants ?
 
  • #12
wuid said:
if i take a fair coin where , X=1 for heads , X=0 for tail so P(X=1)=P(X=0)=0.5 ,
and i will define Y=1-X so P(Y=1)=P(Y=0)=0.5 ,
can i say that P(X=0)=P(X=1)=P(X+Y=1)=0.5 ?
this means X,X+Y have equal distribution and X,Y are not constants ?

I don't think this example works. If Y = 1 - X, then X + Y cannot equal 0, whereas X can, with probability 0.5. Therefore X and X + Y do not have the same probability distribution.
 
  • #13
o.k got it , with slight modification - Z=1-X , Y=1-2*X then Z=X+Y, where X is Bernoulli
=> X,Z equal in distribution.
 
  • #14
wuid said:
o.k got it , with slight modification - Z=1-X , Y=1-2*X then Z=X+Y, where X is Bernoulli
=> X,Z equal in distribution.

Looks good to me.
 

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