Can Two Different Random Variables Have the Same Distribution?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the possibility of two different random variables, X and Y, having the same distribution as X and X+Y. Participants explore the conditions under which this might occur and question the implications of equality in distribution.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the conditions required for X and X+Y to have equal distributions, including the need to prove P(X ≤ t) = P(X + Y ≤ t) for all t. Some consider specific cases, such as when X or Y are constants, while others explore examples involving Bernoulli distributions.

Discussion Status

The conversation is ongoing, with participants offering various examples and questioning the validity of their reasoning. Some have suggested potential cases where the distributions might align, while others express uncertainty about the implications of their examples.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that certain topics, such as characteristic functions and moment-generating functions, have not been covered in their course, which may limit their ability to fully engage with the problem. Additionally, there is a clear emphasis on the requirement that X and Y must be different random variables.

wuid
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Hello ,

frustrated with my lecturer assignments , i need your help with this :

if X,Y and are two different random variable , is it possible that X,X+Y have equally distributed.

if it can be give an example , if not prove it.

thanks,
 
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wuid said:
Hello ,

frustrated with my lecturer assignments , i need your help with this :

if X,Y and are two different random variable , is it possible that X,X+Y have equally distributed.

if it can be give an example , if not prove it.

thanks,

Show your work---those are the Forum rules.

RGV
 
sorry but i don't have any ,
i don't remember that we learned who to prove equality in distribution.
all i thought of is that if i want to prove it right i have to prove that :
P(X[itex]\leq[/itex]t)=P(X+Y[itex]\leq[/itex]t) for all t,

maybe there other conditions that lead to equality in distribution, but i don't know them.

generally i think it is possible , so i am trying to think on distribution that will satisfy the answer
 
wuid said:
sorry but i don't have any ,
i don't remember that we learned who to prove equality in distribution.
all i thought of is that if i want to prove it right i have to prove that :
P(X[itex]\leq[/itex]t)=P(X+Y[itex]\leq[/itex]t) for all t,

maybe there other conditions that lead to equality in distribution, but i don't know them.

generally i think it is possible , so i am trying to think on distribution that will satisfy the answer

Equality in distribution is equivalent to equality of the characteristic functions,or Laplace transforms, or moment-generating functions, etc.

RGV
 
those subjects you mentioned aren't in the topics of the course , haven't learned them...

maybe a simple case that answer this problem ?
 
Are there any constraints at all on X and Y?

For example, if X is equal to some constant with probability 1, can you find a solution in that case?
 
jbunniii , if i understood you ,
if x is a constant with probability 1 and y is also the same constant with probability 1 then
x,x+y has the same distribution.

is it right ?

but the only constraint about x and y that they will be different
 
wuid said:
jbunniii , if i understood you ,
if x is a constant with probability 1 and y is also the same constant with probability 1 then
x,x+y has the same distribution.

is it right ?

Well, it depends on which constant you choose. If x and y are constants, and you need x = x + y, then what does this imply?
 
going back to the start , if X,Y are different random variable they can't be constants.
no ? i can't see where is the randomness of X or Y if the are constants.
 
  • #10
Certainly a random variable can be constant. Simply assign it a constant value with probability 1. Yes, it's a somewhat trivial example, but that's why I asked if there are any constraints on what kind of distribution can be assumed.

To find out if there is a less trivial example, consider this: if X and X + Y have the same distribution, then they must have the same moments. Try using this fact for the first and second moments, and see what you can conclude.
 
  • #11
if i take a fair coin where , X=1 for heads , X=0 for tail so P(X=1)=P(X=0)=0.5 ,
and i will define Y=1-X so P(Y=1)=P(Y=0)=0.5 ,
can i say that P(X=0)=P(X=1)=P(X+Y=1)=0.5 ?
this means X,X+Y have equal distribution and X,Y are not constants ?
 
  • #12
wuid said:
if i take a fair coin where , X=1 for heads , X=0 for tail so P(X=1)=P(X=0)=0.5 ,
and i will define Y=1-X so P(Y=1)=P(Y=0)=0.5 ,
can i say that P(X=0)=P(X=1)=P(X+Y=1)=0.5 ?
this means X,X+Y have equal distribution and X,Y are not constants ?

I don't think this example works. If Y = 1 - X, then X + Y cannot equal 0, whereas X can, with probability 0.5. Therefore X and X + Y do not have the same probability distribution.
 
  • #13
o.k got it , with slight modification - Z=1-X , Y=1-2*X then Z=X+Y, where X is Bernoulli
=> X,Z equal in distribution.
 
  • #14
wuid said:
o.k got it , with slight modification - Z=1-X , Y=1-2*X then Z=X+Y, where X is Bernoulli
=> X,Z equal in distribution.

Looks good to me.
 

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