Can var(x+y) Be Less Than or Equal to 2(var(x) + var(y))?

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    Inequality Proof
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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the mathematical proof of the inequality var(x+y) ≤ 2(var(x) + var(y)). Participants explore the relationship between the variances of two random variables and their covariance, seeking to establish the validity of the inequality through various mathematical approaches.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents the initial expression for var(x+y) and seeks assistance in proving the inequality.
  • Another participant introduces the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality to derive a proof, relating the covariance to the variances of x and y.
  • The second participant outlines a series of inequalities to demonstrate the desired result, referencing the relationship between geometric and arithmetic means.
  • Subsequent posts express gratitude for the assistance provided, indicating a collaborative atmosphere.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants appear to agree on the mathematical approach involving the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, but the initial proof request indicates that the discussion is still in a developmental stage without a definitive conclusion.

Contextual Notes

The discussion does not clarify the assumptions regarding the independence of x and y or the conditions under which the covariance is defined. The steps leading to the final inequality are not fully resolved in the conversation.

kbilsback5
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Hi, I was hoping that someone might be able to please help me with this proof.

Prove that var(x+y) ≤ 2(var(x) + var(y)).

So far I have:

var(x+y) = var(x) + var(y) + 2cov(x,y)

where the cov(x,y) = E(xy) - E(x)E(y), but I'm not really sure to go from there.
Any insight would be very helpful!

Thanks!
 
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Let \alpha=var(x),\beta=var(y),\gamma=cov(x,y). According to the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality (see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cauchy%E2%80%93Schwarz_inequality for the proof), \gamma^{2}\leq{}\alpha\beta. We want to show \alpha{}+\beta{}+2\gamma\leq{}2(\alpha{}+\beta), which follows directly from

2\gamma\leq{}2(\gamma^{2})^{\frac{1}{2}}\leq{}2(\alpha\beta)^{\frac{1}{2}}\leq{}2(\frac{\alpha{}+\beta}{2})\leq{}\alpha{}+\beta

where (\alpha\beta)^{\frac{1}{2}}\leq{}\frac{\alpha{}+\beta}{2} follows from the well-known fact that the geometric mean is always smaller than the arithmetic mean (see http://www.cut-the-knot.org/pythagoras/corollary.shtml for proof).
 
Awesome! Thanks so much for your help!
 
You are welcome.
 

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