Can you derive a trigonometric function from its inverse dx?

In summary: Let me research some more.You're a member, so you should be able to use it. If you scroll all the way up to the top of the thread, don't you see a button that says "MARK SOLVED"?This is a new change, so it could be that you have an old version of our software in your cache. Try logging out, and then logging back in.I still can't see it. If you can't find it in the link I posted, then I won't be able to find it, either.It's probably a premium feature.Maybe your browser doesn't support it.I don't think we have and "premium features." Let me research some more.It's definitely not a premium feature - it
  • #1
Eclair_de_XII
1,083
91

Homework Statement


Arbitrary derivative of inverse trigonometric function:
(sin-1x) = 1/(√1 - x2)

Homework Equations


f-1(f(x)) = 1/f`(x)

The Attempt at a Solution


So basically I learned about derivatives of trigonometric functions in class, and I thought maybe this would work: deriving the derivative of the regular sine function from its inverse sine, and then integrating that, to express a regular arbitrary trigonometric function in terms of x. Here is my thinking:

(sin-1x) = 1/(√1-x2)
f-1(sin x) = 1/(sin x)` = 1/(√1 - x2)

Which is to say that:

(sin x)` = (√1 - x2)

Integrating this, we have

sin x = ∫(1 - x2)½dx

I haven't yet figured out how to evaluate this integral, but can someone tell me if my thinking is straight or not?
 
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  • #2
Eclair_de_XII said:

Homework Statement


Arbitrary derivative of inverse trigonometric function:
(sin-1x) = 1/(√1 - x2)

Homework Equations


f-1(f(x)) = 1/f`(x)

The Attempt at a Solution


So basically I learned about derivatives of trigonometric functions in class, and I thought maybe this would work: deriving the derivative of the regular sine function from its inverse sine, and then integrating that, to express a regular arbitrary trigonometric function in terms of x. Here is my thinking:

(sin-1x) = 1/(√1-x2)
f-1(sin x) = 1/(sin x)` = 1/(√1 - x2)

Which is to say that:

(sin x)` = (√1 - x2)

Integrating this, we have

sin x = ∫(1 - x2)½dx

I haven't yet figured out how to evaluate this integral, but can someone tell me if my thinking is straight or not?
It's not really clear what you are trying to achieve, but there clearly are a number of mistakes.
(sin-1x) = 1/(√1 - x2): you probably meant ##(\sin^{-1})'(x)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x²}}##
f-1(f(x)) = 1/f`(x): you probably meant ##(f^{-1})'(f(x))=\frac{1}{f'(x)}##
In both cases there is a derivative sign missing.

As you started from wrong equations, the final result is also incorrect: ##\sin(x) \neq \int \sqrt{1-x²}dx##.
 
Last edited:
  • #3
Can I ask anybody to refrain from posting in this topic?
 
Last edited:
  • #4
Then what was your point in posting it?
 
  • #5
Never mind... I can't change what other people think, and I certainly can't stop people from saying what's on their mind.
 
  • #6
Eclair_de_XII said:
Never mind... I can't change what other people think, and I certainly can't stop people from saying what's on their mind.
You could mark it as "Solved" using the new button at the top right of the thread.
 
  • #8
Eclair_de_XII said:
http://i.imgur.com/FSPhDrm.png

I don't see it. Is it a members-only feature?
You're a member, so you should be able to use it. If you scroll all the way up to the top of the thread, don't you see a button that says "MARK SOLVED"?

This is a new change, so it could be that you have an old version of our software in your cache. Try logging out, and then logging back in.
 
  • #9
I still can't see it. If you can't find it in the link I posted, then I won't be able to find it, either.

It's probably a premium feature.
 
  • #10
Maybe your browser doesn't support it. I don't think we have and "premium features."
 

1. Can you explain what it means to derive a trigonometric function from its inverse dx?

Deriving a trigonometric function from its inverse dx means finding the derivative of the inverse function using the chain rule. This is done by taking the derivative of the original trigonometric function and substituting the inverse function in for the variable, then multiplying by the derivative of the inverse function.

2. Why is it important to be able to derive trigonometric functions from their inverse dx?

Being able to derive trigonometric functions from their inverse dx allows us to solve more complex problems involving inverse trigonometric functions. It also helps us understand the relationship between a function and its inverse, and how to find the derivative of inverse functions in general.

3. What is the chain rule and how is it used to derive trigonometric functions from their inverse dx?

The chain rule is a formula used to find the derivative of composite functions. In the case of deriving trigonometric functions from their inverse dx, the chain rule involves taking the derivative of the original function and substituting the inverse function in for the variable, then multiplying by the derivative of the inverse function.

4. Are there any special considerations when deriving inverse trigonometric functions?

Yes, when deriving inverse trigonometric functions, it is important to remember that the derivative of an inverse function is equal to 1 divided by the derivative of the original function. This is because the inverse function "undoes" the original function, so their derivatives are inversely related.

5. Can you provide an example of deriving a trigonometric function from its inverse dx?

Sure, let's take the inverse sine function (arcsin) as an example. We know that the derivative of the sine function is cos(x). Using the chain rule, we can find the derivative of arcsin(x) as follows:
d/dx (arcsin(x)) = d/dx (sin(y)) * dy/dx = cos(y) * (1/cos(y)) = 1
Therefore, the derivative of arcsin(x) is 1/cos(y), or 1/sqrt(1-x^2), using the Pythagorean identity. This process can be applied to other inverse trigonometric functions as well.

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