MHB Can you help me solve this tricky integral involving arctanx?

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The integral $\int \dfrac{1}{\tan^{-1}(x)}dx$ does not have an anti-derivative expressible in elementary terms, as confirmed by Wolfram Alpha. The original problem involves demonstrating that the differential equation $xdy - ydx = \tan^{-1}(y/x)dx$ can be solved using the substitution $y = vx$. After substitution, the equation simplifies to a separable form, leading to the integral $\int \dfrac{1}{\tan^{-1}(v)}dv = -\dfrac{1}{x} + C$. The discussion concludes that the differential equation may only have an implicit solution, leaving the integral unresolved in terms of elementary functions.
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Hello everyone! I need some help with the integral:

$\displaystyle \int \dfrac{1}{\tan^{-1}(x)}dx$

I don't know how to solve it... can you guys help me please?
 
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That function (the integrand) does not have an anti-derivative that can be expressed in elementary terms (at least according to W|A). Is this perhaps part of another problem, where this may be the wrong result?
 
MarkFL said:
That function (the integrand) does not have an anti-derivative that can be expressed in elementary terms (at least according to W|A). Is this perhaps part of another problem, where this may be the wrong result?

Well actually... yes, the orginal problem is to demostrate that the differential equation $xdy-ydx=tan^{-1}(y/x)dx$ can be solved by using the substitution $y=vx$ even for this non-homogeneus equation. So i proceed to solve:

$y=vx$

Then

$dy=vdx+xdv$

Substituing in the original differential equation i did obtain:

$x(vdx+xdv)-vxdx=tan^{-1}(vx/x)dx$

Simplifiyng and re-ordening the equation i get:

$x^{2}dv-{tan}^{-1}(v)dx=0$ (Separable differential equation)

$\dfrac{1}{tan^{-1}(v)}dv=\dfrac{1}{x^2}dx$

Then... to solve it:

$\int \dfrac{1}{tan^{-1}(v)}dv=\int \dfrac{1}{x^2}dx$

$\int \dfrac{1}{tan^{-1}(v)}dv=- \dfrac{1}{x}+C$

But to complete the problem i need to solve the integral and return to the original variable $y$.
 
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I can't see any mistake in your solution so I guess you can just leave it like that and argue that de differential equation has only an implicit solution.
 
Or maybe that y = vx doesn't work after all.

-Dan
 
There are probably loads of proofs of this online, but I do not want to cheat. Here is my attempt: Convexity says that $$f(\lambda a + (1-\lambda)b) \leq \lambda f(a) + (1-\lambda) f(b)$$ $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (f(a) - f(b))$$ We know from the intermediate value theorem that there exists a ##c \in (b,a)## such that $$\frac{f(a) - f(b)}{a-b} = f'(c).$$ Hence $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (a - b) f'(c))$$ $$\frac{f(b + \lambda(a-b)) - f(b)}{\lambda(a-b)}...

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