Power Series Expansion of Cauchy Integral Formula on the Unit Circle

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the power series expansion of the Cauchy Integral Formula applied to a continuous function g(u) = \bar{u} on the unit circle. The original poster expresses confusion about how to describe the function f(z) in terms of a power series, given that f is analytic within the unit circle.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the relationship between the analyticity of f and its Taylor series convergence. There are attempts to express f(z) in terms of a power series using integrals involving g(u). Questions arise about the evaluation of specific integrals and the implications of the non-holomorphic nature of g(u) on the equality of f and g.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing insights into the convergence of series and the conditions under which term-by-term integration is valid. Some participants suggest methods for evaluating integrals, while others question the implications of these evaluations on the relationship between f and g.

Contextual Notes

There are constraints regarding the evaluation of integrals involving powers of u, particularly when the denominator has powers greater than one. The discussion also highlights the distinction between holomorphic and non-holomorphic functions in the context of the problem.

fauboca
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For all z inside of C (C the unit circle oriented counterclockwise),
<br /> f(z) = \frac{1}{2\pi i}\int_C \frac{g(u)}{u-z} du<br />
where g(u) = \bar{u} is a continuous function and f is analytic in C. Describe fin C in terms of a power series.

\displaystyle f(z) = \frac{1}{2\pi i}\int_C \frac{\bar{u}}{u-z} du I am confused with what I am supposed to do. I know it says describe f in terms of a power series.
 
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If f is analytic in C, then its Taylor series should converge to f everywhere in C, right?
 
alanlu said:
If f is analytic in C, then its Taylor series should converge to f everywhere in C, right?

Yes.
 
f(z)=\frac{1}{2\pi i}\int_C\frac{\bar{u}}{u-z}du\Rightarrow 2\pi if(z)=\int_C\frac{\bar{u}}{u-z_0}\frac{1}{1-\frac{z-z_0}{u-z_0}}du

z_0 is not necessarily on C. Let s=\inf\{|C(t)-z_0|:C(t) \ \text{any point on} \ C\} Since C is compact, s&gt;0.
Let r be the radius of the open disc around z_0 such that the disc doesn't intersect C. Take z\in D(z_0,r) fix r such that 0&lt;r&lt;s.

\frac{z-z_0}{u-z_0} is uniformly bounded since the max z-z_0 is r and the min u-z_0 is s so \frac{r}{s}&lt;1.

<br /> 2\pi i f(z) = \int_C \frac{\bar{u}}{u-z_0}\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{(u-z_0)^n}(z-z_0)^n du<br />
The series converges uniformly for all r<s and pointwise for all z with z\in D(z_0,s). So we can integrate term by term.

<br /> 2\pi i f(z) = \sum_n^{\infty}\left[\int_C\frac{\bar{u}}{(u-z_0)^{n+1}}du(z-z_0)^n\right]<br />

Let c_n=\int_C\frac{\bar{u}}{(u-z_0)^{n+1}}du. Then
<br /> 2\pi i f(z) = \sum_n^{\infty}c_n(z-z_0)^n<br />

Now how can I explain why f does or does not equal g? Is f described correctly as a power series here as well?
 
fauboca said:
f(z)=\frac{1}{2\pi i}\int_C\frac{\bar{u}}{u-z}du\Rightarrow 2\pi if(z)=\int_C\frac{\bar{u}}{u-z_0}\frac{1}{1-\frac{z-z_0}{u-z_0}}du

z_0 is not necessarily on C. Let s=\inf\{|C(t)-z_0|:C(t) \ \text{any point on} \ C\} Since C is compact, s&gt;0.
Let r be the radius of the open disc around z_0 such that the disc doesn't intersect C. Take z\in D(z_0,r) fix r such that 0&lt;r&lt;s.

\frac{z-z_0}{u-z_0} is uniformly bounded since the max z-z_0 is r and the min u-z_0 is s so \frac{r}{s}&lt;1.

<br /> 2\pi i f(z) = \int_C \frac{\bar{u}}{u-z_0}\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{(u-z_0)^n}(z-z_0)^n du<br />
The series converges uniformly for all r<s and pointwise for all z with z\in D(z_0,s). So we can integrate term by term.

<br /> 2\pi i f(z) = \sum_n^{\infty}\left[\int_C\frac{\bar{u}}{(u-z_0)^{n+1}}du(z-z_0)^n\right]<br />

Let c_n=\int_C\frac{\bar{u}}{(u-z_0)^{n+1}}du. Then
<br /> 2\pi i f(z) = \sum_n^{\infty}c_n(z-z_0)^n<br />

Now how can I explain why f does or does not equal g? Is f described correctly as a power series here as well?

From here, I can expand at z_0 = 0 around the unit circle and evaluate the coefficient.

$$
f(z) = \frac{1}{2\pi i}\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\int_0^{2\pi}\frac{\bar{u}}{u^{n+1}}du z^n
$$

For n = 0, we have

$$
\frac{1}{2\pi i}\int_0^{2\pi}\frac{\bar{u}}{u}du
$$

How is this integral evaluated?

Like this:

$$
\int_0^{2\pi}\frac{\bar{u}}{u}du = 2\pi i 0
$$

By the Cauchy Integral Formula, then divide by 2\pi i but here the sol is 0 regardless?

The second term would be

$$
\int_0^{2\pi}\frac{\bar{u}}{u^2}du
$$

How would I integrate this?
 
Last edited:
fauboca said:
From here, I can expand at z_0 = 0 around the unit circle and evaluate the coefficient.

$$
f(z) = \frac{1}{2\pi i}\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\int_0^{2\pi}\frac{\bar{u}}{u^{n+1}}du z^n
$$

For n = 0, we have

$$
\frac{1}{2\pi i}\int_0^{2\pi}\frac{\bar{u}}{u}du
$$

How is this integral evaluated?

Like this:

$$
\int_0^{2\pi}\frac{\bar{u}}{u}du = 2\pi i 0
$$

By the Cauchy Integral Formula, then divide by 2\pi i but here the sol is 0 regardless?

The second term would be

$$
\int_0^{2\pi}\frac{\bar{u}}{u^2}du
$$

How would I integrate this?

$$
f(z) = \frac{1}{2\pi i}\sum_{n = 0}^{\infty}\left[\int_C\frac{\bar{u}}{u^{n + 1}}du z^n\right].
$$
Since \bar{u} is not holomorphic in the disk, f\neq g.
Then
$$
f(z) = \frac{1}{2\pi i}\left[\underbrace{z^0\int_0^{2\pi}\frac{\bar{u}}{u}du}_{0} + z\int_0^{2\pi}\frac{\bar{u}}{u^2}du + z^2\int_0^{2\pi}\frac{\bar{u}}{u^3}du + \cdots\right].
$$

Is this how f should be described, because I have no idea how to integrate the functions when the denominator has a power of 2 or greater.
 

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