- #1

TheOldHag

- 44

- 3

Is it because the probability is very small outside of [0,1] and thereby still a good approximation. Or am I not understanding the central limit theorem. I have googled a bit and most of what I have found is applying the central limit theorem to the binomial distribution. But this seems to be the easier case and my guess is having to estimate a proportion is very common. Any insight is appreciated.