Chain-rule issue on Laplacian equation

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on verifying that the potential function ψ(r,θ) = -crαsin(αθ) satisfies Laplace's equation, Δψ = 0. A participant initially misapplied the Chain Rule, leading to confusion regarding the differentiation of constants. The correct form of the Laplacian in polar coordinates is Δ²ψ = r-1∂/∂r(r∂ψ/∂r) + r-2(∂²ψ/∂θ²). After applying this formula correctly, the terms simplify to confirm that the Laplacian equals zero.

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Homework Statement


"The flow of a fluid past a wedge is described by the potential

ψ(r,θ) = -crαsin(αθ),

where c and α are constants, and (r,θ) are the cylindrical coordinates of a point in the fluid (the potential is independent of z). Verify that this function satisfies Laplace's equation, Δψ = 0."

Homework Equations


Δ is the Laplacian operator

The Attempt at a Solution


I have proved the statement, but I feel like I had to fudge the Chain Rule in order for it to work out. I have that δ/δr(ψ) = -αcrαsinαθ but I think that since α is some constant I ought to have δ/δr(ψ) = -αcr(α-1)sinαθ, and the second partial derivative would yield -α(α-1)cr(α-2)sinαθ. If done this way, the terms will not cancel and I cannot conclude the Laplacian is equal to zero.

Why doesn't the power of α change if it's a constant? I thought that d/dx(xn) = nx(n-1), so why does that not seem to apply in this case?

Thanks for any insight.
 
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NinjaPeanut said:

Homework Statement


"The flow of a fluid past a wedge is described by the potential

ψ(r,θ) = -crαsin(αθ),

where c and α are constants, and (r,θ) are the cylindrical coordinates of a point in the fluid (the potential is independent of z). Verify that this function satisfies Laplace's equation, Δψ = 0."

Homework Equations


Δ is the Laplacian operator

The Attempt at a Solution


I have proved the statement, but I feel like I had to fudge the Chain Rule in order for it to work out. I have that δ/δr(ψ) = -αcrαsinαθ but I think that since α is some constant I ought to have δ/δr(ψ) = -αcr(α-1)sinαθ, and the second partial derivative would yield -α(α-1)cr(α-2)sinαθ. If done this way, the terms will not cancel and I cannot conclude the Laplacian is equal to zero.

Why doesn't the power of α change if it's a constant? I thought that d/dx(xn) = nx(n-1), so why does that not seem to apply in this case?

Thanks for any insight.

I don't think you are using the correct form for the laplacian in polar coordinates. Can you show what form you are using and your work in full? There shouldn't be any need to 'cheat' the chain rule.
 
Last edited:
Thanks for the advice, it was spot on! The correct formula for the Laplacian in polar coordinates is
Δ2ψ = r-1δ/δr(r*δψ/δr) + r-22ψ/δθ2)
Plugging in, we have:
r-1δ/δr[-r*cαr(α-1)sin(αθ)] + r-2[cα2rαsin(αθ)]
Differentiating the first term and simplifying, we have
-cαr(α-2)sin(αθ) - cα2r(α-2)sin(αθ) + cαr(α-2)sin(αθ) + cα2r(α-2)sin(αθ) = 0
 

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