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In discussion of the CMB it is often claimed that a spherical harmonic l roughly corresponds to l = \frac{\pi}{\theta}. Does anyone know a simple way to show this?
First of all, if we pick any of the various Y^l_m's, we know that the size of the variations for any m for a given l is the same. So we can pick one particular Y^l_m that has a particularly simple functional form, m = \pm l:nicksauce said:In discussion of the CMB it is often claimed that a spherical harmonic l roughly corresponds to l = \frac{\pi}{\theta}. Does anyone know a simple way to show this?