Coefficients in the power series

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the properties of coefficients in power series, specifically focusing on the sum of the absolute values of these coefficients and conditions under which certain inequalities hold. The context includes theoretical exploration and mathematical reasoning related to power series and their convergence.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant seeks to prove that the sum of the absolute values of the coefficients of a power series is less than 1.
  • Another participant provides counterexamples using known power series, such as the geometric series and the exponential function, suggesting that the initial hypothesis may not hold.
  • A later reply indicates a shift in focus, proposing a new question regarding the behavior of a function f(z) mapping the open unit disk to itself, under certain derivative conditions at zero.
  • The participant expresses a desire to use the Schwarz lemma to approach the new question but is struggling with the brute force method of expanding the power series.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not appear to reach consensus on the initial hypothesis regarding the sum of the absolute values of the coefficients, as counterexamples challenge this idea. The discussion on the new question remains unresolved, with differing approaches being considered.

Contextual Notes

The discussion includes assumptions about the convergence of power series and the conditions under which the proposed inequalities may hold. There is also a dependence on the definitions of the functions and the nature of the open unit disk.

esisk
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Hi,

I am trying to prove something, but I need some kind of a result on the coefficients of a power series.

Suppose f(z) has a power series expansion about zero (converges). What can I say about the sum of the absolute values of the coefficients? Ideally I would like to show this sum is less than 1.

thank you
 
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[tex] \frac{1}{1 - x} = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} x^n for \ all \ | x | < 1[/tex]

If we denote a_n to be the coefficient of the nth term, then then a_n = 1 for all n, in which case,

[tex] \sum_{n = 1}^{\infty} 1 \rightarrow \infty[/tex]

Or in the case when it does converge, consider:

[tex] e^x = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{x^n}{n!}[/tex]

Letting x = 1, we'd be summing the coefficients, i.e.

[tex] \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n!} = e[/tex]

It seems your hypothesis fails.
 
Thank you L'Hospital, that is very clear
 


In light of L'Hospital's comment I need change my plan of of attack on the question. I think I need to state the question I was trying to prove:

If f(z) : D--->D where D is the open unit disk, and

the first (k-1) derivatives at zero vanish,

I would like to show that

If(z)I <= IzI^k Tha is abs{f(z)} \leq abs{z}^k

I believe one can (an the question is possibly intended to be solved this way) approach it using Schwarz, I was trying to do it by brute force whereby expanding the power series and saying
f(x)=z^k g(z) and somehow show that I g(z) I <= 1. I am failing as of now.
Any help? I thank you for your time
 

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