Common Velocity at Maximum Deformation

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on a mechanics problem involving two masses, A and B, with a spring between them, where B collides with the spring while moving faster than A. At maximum compression of the spring, both masses achieve a common velocity, which can be derived using energy and momentum conservation equations. The participants explore whether a rigorous mathematical proof exists to show that the velocities of A and B are equal at maximum compression. Various approaches are suggested, including analyzing the system in the center of mass frame, where the total momentum is zero, leading to the conclusion that both velocities must match at that instant. The conversation highlights the complexities of proving these concepts within elementary mechanics.
maverick280857
Messages
1,774
Reaction score
5
Hello everyone

I came across a few (relatively standard) problem in elementary classical mechanics...

A mass A is traveling with a constant intial velocity (v_{A})_{1} and a massless relaxed spring (spring constant = k) is attached to the mass A. A second mass B is traveling with a constant velocity (v_{B})_{1} such that (v_{A})_{1} < (v_{B})_{1}. The mass B collides with the spring compressing it. Find the maximum compression of the spring (one part of the problem). Assume that the surface on which A and B move is frictionless.

This is how I worked it out (and got the right answer): (by the way A is the leading mass and B is the lagging mass initially and the spring is between A and B)

At maximum compression (x_{max}) the system (A+B+spring) will behave (momentarily) as a rigid body and so relative velocity of A and B will be zero. In other words, at maximum compression, A and B will have a common velocity which can be computed by applying the energy momentum equations:

\frac{1}{2}{m_{A}}{(v_{A})_{1}}^2 + \frac{1}{2}{m_{B}}{(v_{B})_{1}}^2 = \frac{1}{2}{m_{A}}{(v_{A})_{2}}^2 + \frac{1}{2}{m_{B}}{(v_{B})_{2}}^2 + \frac{1}{2}kx^2

m_{A}{(v_{A})_{1}} + m_{B}{(v_{B})_{1}} = m_{A}{(v_{A})_{2}} + m_{B}{(v_{B})_{2}}

(setting x=x_{max} and (v_{A})_{2} = (v_{B})_{2} gives an expression for x_{max})

Now, it is obvious and logical that the velocities of A and B will be common at maximum deformation but can this proved mathematically? In other words, can I use the energy momentum equations treating momentum conservation as a constraint on the two final velocities and maximize x somehow and arrive at the condition that the velocities are equal at maximum x? I tried doing this but I was not successful.

As I understand a rigorous mathematical proof is not available in the realms of elementary mechanics but is a solution possible using some more advanced mechanics/mathematics?

Thanks and cheers
Vivek
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Well, I don't find the following argument terribly advanced:

1. At maximal compression, it is certainly true that B's velocity must equal the velocity of the spring tip which is in contact with B.
2. At all times, the velocity of the spring tip attached to A is equal to A's velocity.

3. The length of the spring is a minimum at the time when maximal compression occurs;
that is, if L(t) is the total length of the spring, we must have \frac{dL}{dt}=0 at the time of maximal compression.

4. let the position of the spring tip in contact with A be P_{A}(t), whereas the position of the spring tip in contact with B have position P_{B}(t)
Since L(t)=P_{B}(t)-P_{A}(t)
your result follows, since:
\frac{dP_{B}}{dt}=V_{B},\frac{dP_{A}}{dt}=V_{A}

(Note: this argument assumes that the spring remains straight throughout the motion)
 
Last edited:
An alternative approach :

In the center of mass frame of reference, where v({CoM) = \frac{m_Av_A + m_Bv_B}{m_A + m_B}~,
the total momentum is always zero.

Clearly, the spring is at maximum compression when the sum of KEs is minimum. In this frame, this happens when both velocities become zero. So, at this instant, in any other frame, both velocities must be the same, and equal to the velocity of that frame, relative to ~v(CoM) .

PS : The term 'deformation', if used without additional qualifiers (by materials scientists, at least) is more commonly used to refer to 'plastic deformation'.
 
Last edited:
Thanks arildno and Gokul. I thought of a similar approach as Gokul's and I also came across such an explanation (though rather contorted and involving "pseudo forces") in a book but I decided to keep myself on the ground frame.

Cheers
vivek
 
The rope is tied into the person (the load of 200 pounds) and the rope goes up from the person to a fixed pulley and back down to his hands. He hauls the rope to suspend himself in the air. What is the mechanical advantage of the system? The person will indeed only have to lift half of his body weight (roughly 100 pounds) because he now lessened the load by that same amount. This APPEARS to be a 2:1 because he can hold himself with half the force, but my question is: is that mechanical...
Hello everyone, Consider the problem in which a car is told to travel at 30 km/h for L kilometers and then at 60 km/h for another L kilometers. Next, you are asked to determine the average speed. My question is: although we know that the average speed in this case is the harmonic mean of the two speeds, is it also possible to state that the average speed over this 2L-kilometer stretch can be obtained as a weighted average of the two speeds? Best regards, DaTario
Some physics textbook writer told me that Newton's first law applies only on bodies that feel no interactions at all. He said that if a body is on rest or moves in constant velocity, there is no external force acting on it. But I have heard another form of the law that says the net force acting on a body must be zero. This means there is interactions involved after all. So which one is correct?
Back
Top