Comparison Test for improper integral

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the application of the comparison theorem to determine the convergence of the improper integral ∫ 0→1 (e^-x/√x) dx. The user successfully compares it to the integral ∫ 0→1 (1/√x) dx, which converges to 2, establishing that ∫ 0→1 (e^-x/√x) dx also converges. The user questions the validity of applying the comparison theorem for limits from 0 to 1, despite their textbook's focus on limits from 0 to ∞. The consensus is that the comparison theorem is applicable for any finite limits of integration.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of improper integrals
  • Familiarity with the comparison theorem for integrals
  • Knowledge of limits and convergence in calculus
  • Basic integration techniques
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the comparison theorem for improper integrals in detail
  • Explore examples of improper integrals with finite limits
  • Learn about convergence tests for integrals
  • Review substitution methods in integral calculus
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Students studying calculus, particularly those focusing on improper integrals and convergence, as well as educators seeking to clarify the application of the comparison theorem in various contexts.

sanhuy
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Homework Statement


use the comparison theorem to determine whether ∫ 0→1 (e^-x/√x) dx converges.

Homework Equations


I used ∫ 0 → 1 (1/√x) dx to compare with the integral above

The Attempt at a Solution


i found that ∫ 0 → 1 (1/√x) dx = 2 ( by substituting 0 for t and take the limit of the defenite integral as t → 0^+) thus it is convergent. and (1/√x) > (e^-x/√x) so ∫ 0→1 (e^-x/√x) dx also converges.

But in my textbook they only use the comparison theorem for the limits of integration from 0 to ∞. would it still be acceptable to use the comparison theorem for this problem for limits of integration from 0 to 1.
Thanks for reading :).
 
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sanhuy said:
But in my textbook they only use the comparison theorem for the limits of integration from 0 to ∞. would it still be acceptable to use the comparison theorem for this problem for limits of integration from 0 to 1.
Thanks for reading :).
I don't see any particular reason why the comparison theorem for integrals wouldn't be valid with other limits of integration than ##0## to ##\infty##.

See for example here.
 

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